Final BHP V 2009

3. In dental practice, the clinical asepsis protocol must cover “the after treatment matters”. What does it means?
A. personal protective barriers
B. office study
C. waste management
D. prevention of cross contamination from instrument to patient and dental team
E. prevention of cross contamination from patient to patient

15. Pasien burn injury mengalami luka bakar di wajah dan memerlukan operasi plastic tapi dia tidak mampu, stengah biaya dibayar oleh pabrik. Kamu tetap melakukan operasi. Ethical issues…
A. beneficence
B. non-maleficence
C. autonomy
D. justice

18. Due to ideal thin body, overweight obese men & women suffer from discrimination. X remembers after her date with a good loking man, he walks & said “it’s good thing you have a pretty facebeacuse you’re so fat”, since then X decided to undergo liposuction. Which moral ethical principle is involved?
A. beneficence
B. non-maleficence
C. autonomy
D. justice

19. Beauty comes in 2 kind, in a narrow sense, it can be depend in terms of a personal physical features independent of other character. What is the broad concept of beauty?
A. beauty depend on biologically anchored universal beauty norms based on shape, propose and harmony
B. beauty can be objectively evaluated, without refer to an observer / content
C. relative to context and personal identity
D. beauty cross cultural agreement

21. Breast augmentation is one of the most popular cosmetic surgery. This surgery raises many questions, such as what the motives of the women are. The other ethical issue concerning breat augmentation surgery is…
A. This woman want to put an end to their suffering of small breast
B. The pressure by the media and fashion industry of ideal body image
C. The role of breast as sex symbol and real women image
D. Controversion of silicon implantation whether it is safe or not

22. Face surgery pada down syndrome. Apa disadvantage nya?
Jawab: eradicate characteristic of down syndrome

25. Wanita, femoral fracture, unconscious, dibawa ke A&E, hanya bisa didapatkan nama. Setelah itu dibawa ke orthopedic ward. What should we do?
A. tunggu orang tuanya dating
B. informed consent
C. langsung dibawa ke orthopedic ward
D.
E. pay first

JAWABAN FINAL PHOP I 2009

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. –
9. A/B
10. A
11. –
12. –
13. E
14. –
15. A
16. BASIC SIX
17.
18. B
19. D
20. PENGERTIAN WABAH
21. D
22. C
23. E
24. E
25. C
26. C
27. A
28. D
29. C
30. D
31. B
32. E
33. B
34.
35. B
36. MATERNAL RATIO
37. RESIKO KEMATIAN IBU HAMIL
38. B
39. D
40. D
41. B
42. D
43. A
44. E
45. B
46. C
47. –
48. E
49. B
50. E
51. D??
52. D
53. C
54. B
55. A
56. B
57. B
58. E
59. A
60. F
61. D
62. B
63. E
64. E
65. C
66. A
67. D
68. B
69. C
70. D
71. A
72. E
73. B
74. C
75. A
76. D
77. E
78. D
79. B
80. B
81. C
82. A
83. B
*soal tambahan  isi dari MDG? Improve maternal health

JAWABAN FINAL CRP I 2009

1. D
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. Patient
7. D
8. B
9. D
10. D
11. E
12. Time interval between contact with agent & 1st clinical evidence of resulting disease
13. D
14. 128
15. ?
16. C
17.
18. B
19. A
20. C
21. D
22. B/E
23. E
24. E
25. C
26. C
27. D
28. C/D???
29. C
30. E
31. D
32. 0,4772-0,3413=0,1359
33. 0,4987-0,4332=0,0655
34. 0,5+0,4772=0,9772
35. 0,5-0,4772=0,0228
36.
37. P (Z>3) = 0,5-0,4987=0,0013
38. P(Z>4)  lebih kecil dari P (Z>3)  = 0,0001
39.
40. A
41. C
42. A
43. 92/102
44. B
45. 92/94
46. 196/206
47. 102/300
48.
49.
50. B
51. A??
52. B

JAWABAN MIDTERM CRP I 2009

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. A/B?
5. –
6. –
7. –
8. –
9. A
10. –
11. –
12. –
13. –
14. –
15. –
16. –
17. –
18. –
19. B
20. –
21. A
22. –
23. D
24. –
25. COHORT
26. B
27. ?
28. –
29. –
30. –
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. B
35. –
36. –
37. A
38. B
39. A
40. A
41. C
42. –
43. –
44. E?
45. D
46. –
47. –
48. B
49. -
50.
51. –
52. C
53. –
54. A

Tambahan Midterm PHOP 2009

14. Seorang manajer pada tingkat bawah, ketrampilan yang lebih dibutuhkan adalah :
A. ketrampilan teknis lebih besar dibandingkan ketrampilan konsep
B. ketrampilan teknis dan ketrampilan konsep sama besarnya
C. ketrampilan teknis lebih kecil dibandingkan ketrampilan konsep
D. ketrampilan teknis lebih dibutuhkan dibandingkan ketrampilan berkomunikasi
E. ketrampilan teknis kurang dibutuhkan dibandingkan ketrampilan berkomunikasi

15. Salah satu tokoh dalam perkembangan manajemen yang mengemukakan tentang fungsi-fungsi manajemen adalah :
A. Frederick W. Taylor
B. Henry L. Gantt
C. Gilberth & Gilberth
D. Henry Fayol
E. Elton Mayo

16. Salah satu tokoh manajemen yang mengemukakan tentang human relationship theory adalah :
A. Frederick W. Taylor
B. Henry L. Gantt
C. Gilberth & Gilberth
D. Henry Fayol
E. Elton Mayo

17. Manajemen sebagai suatu ilmu dapat diartikan sebagai :
A. Melakukan dengan tangan
B. Ilmu dan seni mengelola sumber daya dengan efektif dan efisien untuk mencapai tujuan organisasi yang telah ditetapkan
C. Ilmu dan seni mengelola anggota organisasi agar mau secara bersama-sama mencapai tujuan organisasi
D. Ilmu dan seni menggunakan tangan orang lain untuk mencapai tujuan yang telah ditetapkan oleh pimpinan organisasi
E. Ilmu dan seni mengelola berbagai keinginan anggota organisasi agar menjadi satu kesatuan yang merupakan tujuan organisasi

18. Yang dimaksud dengan kepemimpinan adalah :
A. Kemampuan seseorang untuk mengelola suatu organisasi
B. Kemampuan untuk mempengaruhi sekelompok orang untuk mengarahkannya mencapai tujuan organisasi
C. Kemampuan seseorang untuk berkreasi dan berinovasi dalam rangka mencapai tujuan organisasi yang telah ditetapkan
D. Kemampuan seseorang untuk menjadi inspirator bagi organisasi yang dipimpinnya
E. Kemampuan seseorang untuk mencapai tujuan organisasi dengan memanfaatkan orang lain

19. Salah satu cara untuk mengembangkan kemampuan kepemimpinan adalah denga cara :
A. Partisipatif
B. Birokratif
C. Autokratif
D. Continuum of leadership
E. Reflecting

Final CRP 2009

65-year-old man experiences shortness of birth for the last 3 days. He got fever and cough with yellowish sputum for 7 days. It got worse because he had no money to buy medicine. He is a farmer, so he works even on rainy days. He is also a heavy smoker with chronic cough. He has been hospitalized 5 times due to his lung problems. Currently he is diagnosed with pneumonia.

1. Precipitating factor ?
A. Unduly hard work
B. Old age and sex
C. Previous illness
D. Respiratory infection
E. Inadequate medical care

Ada yg nulis optionnya sbb :
A. Old age
B. Previous illness
C. Unduly hard work
D. Respiratory infection
E. Sex

2. The predisposing factor is …
A. Smoking
B. Old age
C. Low income
D. Exposure to rain
E. Sex

3. What is reinforcing factor ?
A. Unduly hard work
B. Age
C. Sex
D. Previous illness
E. Low income

4. When he was entering the hospital, what was the stage of the disease process ?
A. Subclinic
B. Clinic
C. Pathological changes
D. Disable
E. Susceptible

5. The agent from this case ?
A. old age
B. bacteria
C. Cigarette
D. Hard work
Ans. B

6. The host is …
Ans. The patient

7. Enabling factor ?
A. Respiratory function
B. Old age
C. Unduly hard work
D. Inadequate treatment
E. Previous illness

8. The external mechanism is …
A. Humoral immunity
B. Cough
C. Cellular immunity
D. Shortness of breath
E. Hard work

9. The internal mechanism is …
A. chronic cough
B. cough
C. yellow sputum
D. fever
Ans. D

10. 3 faktor yang berkaitan dengan epidemiologic triangle pada kasus di atas …
A. patient, cough, bacteria
B. inadequate medical care, patient, bacteria
C. immunological factor, cough, bacteria
D. patient, bacteria, environment
E. age, environment, cough

11. The environmental factor is …
A. Vector
B. Cough
C. Bacteria
D. Medical care
E. Climate

12. Arti incubation period dalam kasus di atas …

13. Data : 98, 107, 114, 123, 128, 128, 130, 134, 136, 160
Mean systolic blood pressure …
A. 114
B. 118.5
C. 123
D. 125.8
E. 129

14. Median of systolic blood pressure is …

15. Standard deviation of systolic blood pressure is …

16. Mode of systolic blood pressure is …
A. 98
B. 114
C. 128
D. 136
E. 160

17. Comparing a set of data presented both in simple frequency and in class-interval frequency distribution, which of the following statement is true ? (soal sama seperti di modul lab CRP yg pertama)

18. The only measure of central tendency that can be found for nominal data is the …
A. Mean
B. Modus
C. Median
D. Range interval
E. Quartile

19. The measure of central tendency that is most affected by a few large or small numbers is …
A. mean
B. median
C. mode
D. range
E. quartile

20. When a distribution is bell-shaped, approximately what percentage of data values will fall within one standard
deviation of the mean ?
A. 32 %
B. 50 %
C. 68 %
D. 95 %
E. 99 %

21. When a distribution is bell-shaped, approximately, what percentage of data value will fall within two standard
deviation of the mean ?
A. 32 %
B. 50 %
C. 68 %
D. 95 %
E. 99 %

22. The measure of central tendency that is more robust for extreme values is …
A. mean
B. median
C. mode
D. range
E. quartile

For question no. 23 – 24, refer to the information below :
The outcome of 9 patients are : 2, 0, 2, 2, 0, 1, 2
(0 = Live; 1 = Dead; 2 = Still hospitalized)

23. The mean outcome is …
A. 0
B. 1,0
C. 1,3
D. 2
E. cannot be calculated

24. The mode of outcome is …
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Dead
E. Still hospitalized

For question no. 25 – 27, refer to information below :
The following frequency distribution for number of errors 55 students made in test :

Interval Frequency
0 – 2 14
3 – 5 13
6 – 8 11
9 – 11 8
12 – 14 9
Total 55

25. The mean error is :
A. 1,2
B. 1,5
C. 6,2
D. 6,5
E. 12

26. The median of error is (without decimal) :
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
E. 13

27. The percentage of students with errors more than 8 is :
A. 8 %
B. 9 %
C. 17 %
D. 30,9 %
E. 74,5 %

28. The p-value is :
A. the probability that the null hypothesis is true
B. the probability that the alternative hypothesis is true
C. the probability of obtaining a test statistic at least as extreme as the one that was actually observed,
assuming that the null hypothesis is true.
D. the probability of obtaining the observed or more extreme results if the alternative hypothesis is true
E. always less than 0.05

To answer question no. 29 – 42, use the table on standard normal distribution.
Area under the curve :
From Z = 0 to 1 = 0,3413
From Z = 0 to 2 = 0,4772
From Z = 0 to 3 = 0,4987
From Z = 0 to 1,5 = 0,4332
From Z = 0 to 1,645 = 0,450
From Z = 0 to 1,28 = 0,400

29. P (Z > 0) = …
A. 0
B. 0,3413
C. 0,5
D. 0,475
E. 1,0

30. P (Z < 3,0) = …
A. 0
B. 0,4772
C. 0,5
D. 0,4987
E. 0,9987

31. P (-1,5 < Z < 2,0) = …
A. 0,4332
B. 0,4772
C. 0,5
D. 0,9104
E. 0,9772

32. P (-2 < Z < -1) = …

33. P (1.5 < Z < 3) = …

34. P (Z > -2) = …

35. P (Z > 2) = …

36. μ pengukuran systolic blood pressure = 110 mmHg. σ = 10 mmHg. Berapa nilai area under curve untuk blood pressure > 130 mmHg?
Ans. = P (Z > 2) = 0.5 – 0.4772 = 0.0228

37. Tentukan area under the curve untuk systolic blood pressure di atas 140 mmHg

38. Tentukan area under the curve untuk systolic blood pressure di atas 150 mmHg

39. Tentukan area under the curve untuk systolic blood pressure di antara 90 dan 120 mmHg

40. What is the area under the curve below 90 mmHg or above 140 mmHg …
A. 0.0241
B. 0.0278
C. 0.4782
D. 0.4987
E. 0.9758

41. Systolic blood pressure: mean = 110, standard deviation = 10 mmHg
What value of systolic blood pressure will divide the normal distribution into lower 95% and upper 5%?
A. 110
B. 120
C. 126.50
D. 140.50
E. 150.50

42. What is the value of systolic blood pressure that divides the area under the curve into the lower 10% and upper
90% ?
A. 97.2
B. 110
C. 120
D. 130
E. 140

Routine Test Total
(+) (-)
Gold Standard HIV (+) 92 10 102
(-) 2 196 198
Total 94 206 300

43. P (Routine + / HIV +) = …

44. P (routine - / HIV - ) = …
A. 198/300
B. 196/198
C. 196/206
D. 196/300
E. 206/300

45. P (HIV + / Routine + ) = …

46. P (HIV - / Routine - ) = …

47. Prevalensi HIV = 92/300

50. x bar = 20, s = 5
CI 95 %
Range …
A. 15 – 25
B. 10,2 – 29,8
C. 7,1 – 32,9
D. 5 – 35
E. 5 – 15

51. The standard deviation of a set of observation …
A. Equal with coefficient of variation
B. Has the same unit of measurement as the raw data
C. Range
D. Central distribution
E. Location

52. Mean systole 110 mmHg. Variance 25 mmHg2. Coefficient of variation …
A. 25/110
B. 5/110
C. 5/√110
D. 110/25
E. 110/5
Ans. B. CV = SD/mean x 100%

Final PHOP 2009

1. Yang merupakan UPGK
A. Upaya untuk meningkatkan status gizi masyarakat yang dilaksanakan oleh puskesmas
B. Upaya untuk meningkatkan status gizi masyarakat dengan melakukan koordinasi lintas sektoral
C. Upaya untuk meningkatkan status gizi masyarakat untuk mencapai kadarzi
D. Upaya untuk meningkatkan status gizi masyarakat di tingkat institusi
E. Upaya untuk meningkatkan status gizi masyarakat oleh posyandu

2. Yang termasuk Sistem Kewaspadaan Pangan & Gizi
A. Pemantauan tinggi badan anak baru masuk sekolah
B. Pemantauan jajanan sekolah
C. Pemantauan tinggi badan anak SMP kelas 1
D. Pemantauan pencapaian hasil kerja penimbangan di posyandu
E. Pemantauan pemberian makanan tambahan di posyandu

3. Upaya perbaikan gizi pada institusi dilakukan pada
A. Semua balita yang berkunjung ke posyandu
B. Semua peserta haji yang berada di embarkasi haji
C. Semua balita yang berkunjung ke puskesmas
D. Semua balita yang berkunjung ke posyandu dan puskesmas
E. Semua balita dalam wilayah kerja puskesmas

4. Pencatatan dan pelaporan program gizi masyarakat yang dilakukan di puskesmas adalah…
A. Jumlah pemberian tablet besi pada mereka yang menderita anemia
B. Jumlah pemberian imunisasi TT pada ibu hamil
C. Jumlah balita yang memiliki KMS balita
D. Jumlah ibu hamil dalam wilayah kerja puskesmas
E. Jumlah balita yang tidak hadir dalam penimbangan di puskesmas

5. Indikator keberhasilan pembinaan kesehatan wilayah dan peningkatan peran serta masyarakat pada program gizi
A. Penurunan angka KEP
B. Peningkatan partisipasi kader kesehatan, guru, UKS, LSM
C. menurunnya defisiensi dan gangguan gizi
D.
E.

6. Kegiatan penimbangan balita di posyandu. Huruf S pada SKDN adalah
A. Seluruh balita yang terapat di wilayah kerja puskesmas
B. Seluruh balita yang punya KMS
C. Seluruh balita yang ditimbang pada bulan tersebut
D. Seluruh balita yang berat naik di bulan tersebut
E. Seluruh balita yang dating pada penimbangan tersebut

7. Huruf D pada SKDN mencerminkan
A. Jumlah balita yang punya KMS
B. Jumlah balita yang ada pada saat penimbangan
C. Jumlah balita yang ditimbang pada bulan tersebut
D. Jumlah balita yang berat naik di bulan tersebut
E. Jumlah balita yang ada di wilayah kerja puskesmas

8.

9. Pelayanan kesehatan primer akan berhasil dengan baik bila di pihak puskesmas
A. Melaksanakan program pokok dan pengembangan di tingkat puskesmas sebaik mungkin
B. Lintas sektoral dalam melaksanakan pembangunan kesehatan
C. Perbaikan kesejahteraan masyarakat di wilayah kerjanya
D. Perbaikan pendidikan masyarakat di wilayah kerjanya
E. Perbaikan penghasilan masyarakat di wilayah kerjanya

10. Faktor yang mempengaruhi status kesehatan di setiap negara
A. pelayanan kesehatan, social, ekonomi, politik
B. pelayanan kesehatan, social, ekonomi
C. pelayanan kesehatan, social, politik
D. pelayanan kesehatan, ekonomi, politik
E. pelayanan kesehatan, ekonomi

11.

12.

13. Konsep puskesmas berdasarkan Kepkes Menkes RI no. 128/Menkes SK II/2004 adalah
A. Merupakan unit organisasi yang menyelenggarakan pelayanan kesehatan di tingkat kecamatan / kelurahan
B. Unit pelaksana yang bertanggung jawab terhadap pembangunan kesehatan di wilayah kerjanya
C. Merupakan unit penyelenggara pelayanan kesehatan kedua setelah puskesmas pembantu
D. Merupakan unit pelaksana teknis dinas kesehatan kabupaten / kota yang menyelenggarakan pelayanan kesehatan
E. Merupakan unit pelaksana teknis dinas kesehatan kabupaten / kota yang menyelenggarakan pembangunan kesehatan

14.

15. Fungsi puskesmas
A. Pemberdayaan masyarakat
B.
C.
D. melibatkan tokoh masyarakat
E.

16. Basic 6 puskesmas

17. Untuk mencapai keberhasilan program dilakukan manajemen yang memerlukan…
Jawab : koordinasi

18. Sistem rujukan kesehatan masyarakat dalam sistem kesehatan
A. Rujukan kasus
B. Rujukan logistic dan peralatan
C. Rujukan keterampilan dan pengetahuan
D. Rujukan bahan pemeriksaan
E. Rujukan pasien

19. Fungsi puskesmas sebagai pelayanan kesehatan strata 1
A. Memberdayakan masyarakat di wilayahnya
B. Melibatkan masyarakat untuk hidup sehat
C. Implementasi program kesehatan
D. Sebagai public goods & private goods
E. Pelaporan dan outcome

20. Definisi dari wabah

21. Penyakit menular potensi mewabah
A. Anthrax
B. HIV/AIDS
C. TB
D. Malaria
E. ISPA

22. Yang termasuk penyakit menular yang memiliki sifat endemis tinggi adalah
A. DBD
B. Malaria
C. TBC
D. HIV/AIDS
E. Diare

23. Tempat perindukan Aedes aegypti
A. Tempat yang pencahayaannya kurang
B. Semak-semak
C. Tempat penampungan berisi air bersih
D. Baju dalam lemari
E. Tempat penampungan berisi air

24. Apabila petugas puskesmas menemukan suatu kasus demam berdarah di wilayahnya, mak ayang harus dilakukan
A. Fogging massal
B. Abatisasi massal
C.
D.
E. melakukan pelaporan ke dinkes kabupaten / kota dalam waktu 24 jam

25. Salah satu masalah yang dihadapi pelaksanaan program TB di Indonesia adalah
A. Sebagian besar pasien TB adalah wanita
B. Sebagian besar pasien TB adalah anak-anak
C. Sebagian besar pasien TB adalah kelompok usia produktif
D. Sulitnya menegakkan diagnosis TB di puskesmas
E. Banyak kasus resistensi terhadap OAT

26. Berdasarkan hasil SKRT tahun 195, TBC di Indonesia merupakan…
A. 1st pada infeksi
B. 3rd di dunia
C. 3rd penyebab kematian
D. 3rd penyebab kematian pada infeksi
E. 1st penyebab kematian

27. Tingkat penularan penyakit TB ditentukan oleh
A. Adanya BTA di sputum
B. Pengumpulan SPS
C.
D. Jumlah orang yang diperiksa sputumnya
E. Jumlah kuman

28. Bila ARTI pada penyakit TB paru sebesar 3%, maka untuk setiap 1 juta penduduk berapakan jumlah penduduk yang memilki risiko terinfeksi TB paru?
A. 30
B. 300
C. 3000
D. 30000
E. 300000

29. Bila ARTI pada penyakit TB paru sebesar 3%, maka untuk setiap 1 juta penduduk berapakan jumlah penduduk yang menjadi sakit TB paru?
A. 30
B. 300
C. 3000
D. 30000
E. 300000

30. Target penanggulangan TBC tahun 2010
A. Semua sembuh
B. Semua BTA+ dapat pengobatan
C. 50% BTA+ sembuh
D.
E.

31. Fungsi SPS pada suspect TB
A. Keberhasilan pengobatan
B. Menjaring pasien TB paru
C.
D.
E.

32. Kriteria pesien default pada penanganan TB
A. Pasien yang pernah minum OAT < 4 minggu
B. Pasien BTA+ yang menjalani pengobatan penuh tapi pada pemeriksaan sputum (+)
C. Pasien BTA+ yang menjalani pengobatan penuh selama 5 bulan tapi pada pemeriksaan sputum (+)
D. Pasien BTA+ yang dirujuk ke tempat lain
E. Pasien BTA+ yang menjalani pengobatan 2 bulan tapi menghentikan pengobatannya

33. Tahap intensif pada pengobatan TB untuk mencegah
A. Kekambuhan
B. Resistensi
C.
D.
E.

34. K4 pada pemeriksaan antenatal adalah

35. Salah satu pelayanan yang diterima oleh ibu hamil pada saat pemeriksaan antenatal yang memenuhi kriteria K4
A. Mendapatkan tablet besi
B. Mendapatkan tablet besi 90 tablet
C. Mendapatkan imunisasi TT untuk kedua kali
D. Mendapatkan pemeriksaan lingkar lengan atas
E. Mendapatkan tablet besi 30 tablet

36. Apa yang dimaksud dengan maternal mortality ratio?
Jawab : number of maternal death per 100.000 live birth

37. Maternal mortality rate mencerminkan…

38. Salah satu penyebab ibu hamil tidak mendapatkan pelayanan kesehatan sesuai dengan kebutuhannya jika dilihat dari sudut pandang pelayanan kesehatan adalah
A. Tidak adanya biaya
B. Akses ke unit pelayanan kesehatan
C. Geografis
D. Tidak berjalannya sistem rujukan
E. Ketersediaan alat pelaytanan obstetric emergency

39. Penyebab utama kematian ibu hamil …
A. Jumlah anak terlalu banyak
B. Terlambat dirujuk
C. Jarak terlalu dekat
D. Pendarahan
E.

40. Basic factor pada kematian ibu hamil
A. Status kesehatan ibu hamil
B. Sistem pelayanan kesehatan
C. Bidan…
D. Pendidikan ibu hamil
E. Keluarga dan masyarakat di sekitar ibu hamil

41. Kegiatan penunjang puskesmas
A. Balai pengobatan
B. Upaya kesehatan sekolah
C. Promosi kesehatan
D. Primary Health Nursing center (PHNC)
E. Pencatatan dan pelaporan

42. Melalui pendekatan sistem tahap proses pada system informasi kesehatan adalah
A. Data
B. Pencatatan data
C. Pengolahan data
D. Analisa data
E. Menginformasikan hasil analisa

43. Melalui pendekatan sistem, tahapan input pada sistem informasi kesehatan adalah
A. Data
B. Pencatatan data
C. Pengolahan data
D. Analisis data
E. Menginformasikan hasil
44. Melalui pendekatan sistem, tahapan output pada sistem informasi kesehatan adalah
A. Data
B. Pencatatan data
C. Pengolahan data
D. Analisis data
E. Menginformasikan hasil

45. Dalam sistem informasi, top referral manager harus mengetahui
A. Seluruh informasi
B. Seluruh informasi yang berkaitan dengan kebijakan
C. Seluruh informasi yang berkaitan dengan operasional
D. Seluruh informasi yang berkaitan dengan operasional dan kebijakan
E. Sebagian informasi yang berkaitan dengan operasional dan kebijakan

46. Berdasarkan pendekatan sistem, proses koding terdapat dalam tingkatan…
A. Pengumpulan data
B. Transmisi data
C. Pengolahan data
D. Analisis data
E. Menginformasikan data

47.

48. Informasi berpengaruh terhadap tahap mana dalam siklus manajemen berikut
A. Perencanaan
B. Pengorganisasian
C. Pelaksanaan
D. Evaluasi
E. Semua tahap dalam siklus menajemen

49. Manakah yang termasuk emerging infectious disease?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Typhoid
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Conjunctivitis
E. Lymphadenitis

50. Misi pengendalian penyakit menular adalah meningkatkan kualitas hidup penduduk di wilayahnya. Coba sebutkan dengan cara apa saja :
A. Pengobatan penderita
B. Penyuluhan kesehatan
C. Melakukan imunisasi
D. Pengendalian vektor
E. Meningkatkan perlindungan spesifik

51. Faktor apa yang memepengaruhi munculnya penyakit baru atau munculnya lagi penyakit yang sudah pernah ada?
A.
B.
C.
D. Perubahan iklim
E. Ozon depletion

52. Karakteristik penyakit tidak menular
A. Reversibel
B. Tidak dapat diobati
C. Mudah didiagnosis
D. Umumnya tidak tercatat pada unit terdepan
E. Lintas program

53. Manakah penyakit menular yang paling potensial mewabah?
A. Disentri
B. TB
C. Malaria
D. Kusta
E. Anthrax

54. Penyakit tidak menular yang paling banyak ditemui …
A. Cervical cancer
B. DM
C. Lung cancer
D. Chronic Vascular Disease
E. Cirrhosis hepatic

55. Penyakit endemic tinggi yang menular
A. Lepra
B. Filariasis
C. Pneumonia
D. Malaria
E.

56. Penyakit potensi tinggi untuk mewabah
A. TB
B. DBD
C. Syphilis
D. Lepra
E. Anthrax

57. Program control malaria secara dini dengan harapan dunia bebas malria, tapi malria timbul kembali. Kenapa hal ini terjadi; coba sebutkan :
A. Menurunnya resistensi vektor
B. Perubahan iklim
C. Pendudk yang stabil
D. Obat malaria kurang banyak
E. Makan obat tidak teratur

58. Roll Back Malaria merupakan gerakan sosial yang bertujuan untuk mengurangi malaria sampai 2010. Coba sebutkan apa saja tindakannya?
A. Collaboration lintas program
B. Health education
C. Penggunaan pestisida
D. Penyemprotan
E. Advocacy

Untuk soal no. 59 – 67
A. Kontrol terhadap lingkungan
B. Kontrol terhadap vektor
C. Kontrol terhadap host
D. Kontrol terhadap infection agent
E. Kontrol terhadap manusia terinfeksi
F. Kontrol terhadap binatang
59. Housing sanitation
60. Restriction or reduction
61. Cooling
62. Chemical control
63. Intravenous drug use
64. Hospital nososcomial infection
65. Barriers
66. Irrigation
67. Organo phospate

Untuk soal no. 68 – 76
A. Distal socioeconomic cause
B. Proximal cause
C. Physiological & pathophysiologic cause
D. Outcome
E. Sequelae
68. Alcohol intake
69. Glucose metabolism
70. CHD
71. Occupation
72. Kelumpuhan
73. Inactivity
74. Cholesterol level
75. Education
76. Stroke

Untuk soal no. 77 – 83
A. Decentralization to district level
B. Advocacy to the highest level
C. Health care financing reform
D. Gender issues
E. Forging partnership

77. Health is social goal, BOTH government & non-government can contribute to the health and well being population
78. GDI was lower than HDI
79. To motivate them to mobilize additional resource
80. Orienting them to strategies that can be used to address the problem
81. Social health insurance is being implemented in some countries
82. A relevant and realistic health programs to address the need of the population can be planned and implemented
83. To sensitize the policy makers to the new & emerging health program

MDE DMS 2007

72. d
73. a
75. a
76. mungkin D
77. b
78. e
79. e
84. b
85. d
86,87. Aneh soalnya..
89. b
90. a
91. e
94. a
96. e
97. a
98. c
99. e
100. d
101. d
102. c
103. c
108. b,c
109. d
111. b
112. b
113. c
114. a
115. b
116. c
117. a
120. c
121. b
124. d
126. Chlamydia : Mc Coy, Haemophilus : nutrient agar (Chocolate agar), Corynebacterium : Loeffler media, blood agar
127. b
128. d
130. d
132. b
133. b
134. b
135. c
136. e
137. d
138. d
139. c
140. e
141. a
143. e
144. Group of quadratus femoris muscle: A. rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius
** biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, sartoriuS: harmstring muscle
** thenar(dibawah ibu jari) ,hipothenar (bawah kelingking)
** subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor: rotator cuff
** biceps branchii, brachialis, coracobrachialis: anterior compartment of arm
145. Lokasi cephalic vein: B. along lateral side of forearm
**basilic vein: medial aspect of forearm
146. Insert jarum di cubital region→ feel radiating down venous surface of forearm and hand include thumb, index, middle finger, nerve yg rusak: B. median nerve (mempersarafi anterior aspect forearm sampai hand yg bagian ibu jari-telunjuk-jari tengah dan lateral aspect jari manis)
147. Fraktur neck of humerus, persarafan otot apa yg bermasalah: B. deltoid
149.Otot untuk elevasi jaw: C. medial pterygoid muscle (++ temporal, masseter)
Alasan: liat moore hal986 (movement of TMJ) : depresi jaw: lateral pterygoid, suprahyoid, infrahyoid muscle
150. lapisan yg akan mereplace outer layer: horny layer
Alas an: maksud oter layer disini ialah periderm layer: jadi diganti oleh st. corneum/horny layer saat periderm slough off
151. A. neural crest cell
Alas an: yg ditanya kan connective tissue di head..jadi dari neural crest cell (lait langman hal 146)
152: D. MYOD-5 (liat gambar 103 langman hal 145)
153.B. MYF-5 (liat gambar 103 langman hal 145)
155. yg nyebabin kontraksi otot saat lari: B. folding of myosin (penjelasan baca tortora hlm 299-300)
156. pengganti sumber energy kalo ATP abis: E, creatinine phosphate
157. E
158 interferon alpha 2b dipake sebagai anticancer drug, bisa untuk treatment?E. hairy cell leukemia (alasan sama kayak di buku soal)
159. diagnosis untuk trichinellosis: B.muscle biopsy (lap parasit)
160. symptom trichinellosis:D. peubahan ECG (lab parasit)
161. efek toxic ibuprofen: D. gastric ulcer (alasan: sama kayak dibuku soal), efek ibuprogen lebih ke GI tract
164. anastesi paling sering: gak tau..procaine, bubivocaine, tetracin: local anastesi
166 . simpatetik nerve blockage is one of local anasthethic, best location to apply this? Gak tau,,mungkin nerve cell ending
167. local anastesis mengganggu pergerakan molekul: A. Na (lippincot hal 137)
168. chemotrapi trophoblastic disease: ??
169, 171, 172, 173 gak tau
174. exfoliative dermatitis: anemia
174.. E
178 A. rod
179. A
181. E
182B
183D
185C
186C
187. C
188.A
189.C
190.D
191B.
192.E
193.E
195C/E
196 B
197?
198 D
199. A
200. B

MDE DMS 2006

For question 44-47
A 35-year-old man complained thick scaling at elbow & knee area accompanied by mild otching and reddish.

44. Which of the following is likely the diagnosis?
A. Psoriasis
B. Erythroderma
C. Sun burn
D. Lichen planus
E. Dermatitis
Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan :
Psoriasis adalah kelainan kulit akibat hiperproliferasi keratosit pada epidermis, dengan ciri lesi erythrosquamous (kemerahan & pengelupasan sisik).

45. Which of the following test is appropriate to diagnose this disease?
A. Auspitz test
B. Prick test
C. Skin test
D. KOH test
E. Woods test
Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan :
Auspitz’s sign  gambaran titik perdarahan halus bila sisik diangkat dari plak psoriasis, disebabkan oleh penipisan epiddermis di atas dermal-papilae.

46. Which of the following microscopic findings is characteristic for the lesion?
A. Hyperkeratosis
B. Acanthosis
C. Dysphasia
D. Abscess Monroe
E. Hyperplasia
Jawaban : (?)  B/D.
Pembahasan :
Menurut pembahasan 1001 soal  B. acanthosis
Pendapat lain  D. abscess Monroe = kumpulan sel PMN secara fokal pada bagian parakeratosis stratum corneum, ciri khas pada psoriasis.

47. Which of the following layer of the skin is most likely to be affected?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum spinosum
E. Stratum basale
Jawaban : (?)  A/D.
Pembahasan :
Menurut pembahasan 1001 soal  D. stratum spinosum (hiperplasia difus stratum spinosum = acanthosis)
Pendapat lain  A. stratum corneum (abscess Munroe terdapat pada stratum corneum)

48. Shake lotion refer to a vehicle mixture made from?
A. Powder and solution
B. Powder and tincture
C. Ointment and solution
D. Powder and ointment
E. Powder and ointment and solution
Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan :
Lecture Dermoterapi:
Lotion = solution + powder
Cream = solution + ointment
Paste = powder + ointment
Cold paste = solution + powder + ointment

51. Which one is correct regarding arrector pili muscle?
A. They are composed of bundles of myoepithelial
B. They help to push sebum onto skin surface
C. They have no effect on hair position on humans
D. They attach directly to the external root sheath by desmosomes
E. They contain capillary networks that nourish growing hairs
Jawaban : (?)  B/D
Pembahasan :
A. salah, harusnya smooth muscle
B. mungkin membantu mendorong sebum ke permukaan kulit?
C. salah, harusnya punya efek pada posisi rambut
D. mungkin menempel pada external root sheath, walaupun harusnya dermal root sheath
E. salah, karena tidak ada kapiler

52. Which is the function of the skin?
A. Produce vit.C
B. Produce vit.B
C. Produce melatonin
D. Secretion of hormones
E. Vit.D metabolism
Jawaban : E.
Pembahasan : sinar UV matahari mengaktifkan precursor vit.D pada kulit

53. Burn injury 1% (grade II) at left arm due to flame. Deepest layer affected?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum basale
E. Stratum papillary
Jawaban : E.
Pembahasan :
2nd degree burn :
A. Superficial Partial Thickness  sampai upper dermis / papillary layer (+ blister, pain, moist)
B. Deep Partial Thickness  sampai lower dermis / reticular layer (+ mottled, less sensation, hypertrophic scar result)

56. D. Retinoblastoma
57. A. it occur primarily in children
Retinoblastoma is rare congenital tumor of young children
Sumber 56 dan 57: pathophisiology,Mosby
59. C. cell are polymorph
Retinoblastoma may contain both undifferentiated and differentiated elemet
Sumber: robin cotran 1442
58. C. seidel test
Seidel test is the test to indicate leakage of aquoes humour
60. B. decomposition
Decomposition is the late change in cadaver. It is start 24 hours after death
61.C. It is persist until the decomposition process start
Livor mortis will be disappear with appearance of decomposition
Sumber 60 dan 61: slide Thanatology
62. E. several vesicle must be active
Myosin dan actin sarcomerefilamentmyofibrilmuscle fiberfascicleskeletal muscle
Agar skeletal muscle bisa manghasilkan movement maka beberapa fascicle harus aktif
Sumber: tortora, 295
63. C. shape of bony component of each joint
Bentuk-bentuk tulang yang bergabung dalam membentuk sebuah sendi akan mempengaruhi jenis peregerakan dari sendi tersebut
65. D. burn grade II- III 36%
Grade of burn injury
1. 1.only epidermis without blister
2. 2.with blister: A. upper layer of dermis(papillary) berwarna pink. B. deeper layer of dermis(reticular)
3. involve all layer of dermis
4. not only the skin but also involve subcutaneous and struktur under the skin like tendon,ligament,and others
Rule of nine
1. Face and head: 9 %
2. Each upper limb: 9%
3. Each lower limb: 18%
4. Trunk : anterior 18%,posterior 18%
5. Perineum :1 %
Sumber: case review 2006 and 2007
66. A. lactate ringer
Lactat ringer is the most extensively used for rescusitation fluid to maintain intravascular volume initially after burn injury
Colloid is the protein replacement therapy. It is not administered before 24 hours after burn injry
Sumber: case review 2006,treatment of burn injury
67.B. 7200 cc in the 1st 24 hours
Parkland formula= 4 ml lactate ringers x TBSA % of burn injury x weigh in KG in the 1st 24 hours
68. B. grade IIa
Lihat penjelasan no 65
69. B. silver sulfaniazid ointment
It is the broad spectrum antibiotic fot treating burns
70. A. chest X-ray
73. B. le fort II: pyramidal fracture of maxilla
Fracture of face bone
1. Le fort I : horizontal maxillary fracture
2. Le fort II : pyramidal fracture of maxilla
3. Le fort III: transverse facial fracture
Sumber: case review 2007, facial bone fracture
74. Hemangioma:
1. Strawberry hemangioma: start appear on 3-5 week after birth,superficial lesion,elevated skin
2. Covernosus hemangioma: primarily in head and neck area,bluish red color,less distinctive border,deep lesion,spongy mass
75. D. covernosus hemangioma
Sumber 74 dan 75: andrew’s 684
76. A. observation for spontaneous regression
Sumber: andrew’s 686
77. D. serratus anterior
The function of the serratus anterior muscle: protract scapula,hold it against thoracic wall. It is innervated by long thoracic wall.
Paralysis of this muscle cause wing sacapula
Sumber : moore anatomy,752-753
78.A.tuberculous spondylitis of T12 vertebrae with neurologic deficit
79.B. spine
Tuberculous Spondylitis
80.A. Compresion of spinal cord by bony fragment
83.B. Hematogenic
84. E. DEXA
Apley’s,116
85. A. thin bone cortex,thin trabeculae,diminished number
85. B. lung
86. A.concervative
87. A. green stick fracture
Sumber: Apley’s 540
90. C
91. C
92. A
Sumber: andrew’s 803
94. B
95. C
96. B
97.E
98. B
Sumber: moore 28
99. B
100. B
102. B
105. E
106. D
107. E
Sumber: tortora 312
111. nevus
112. C
114. A
115. C
117. C
118. D
119. C
120. A
121. A
Sumber: case review 2006,clinical Finding(CF) of seborrhoid dermatitis
122. E
Sumber: case review 2006, CF of psoriasis
123. D
126.C
127. B
128. A
131. D
134. C
135. B
137. B
138. A
141. D
For question 192-195 :
A 25-year-old woman, good health, underwent extraction of impacted 3rd molar teeth. In the evening, she developed fever. 2 days later swelling of bilateral submandible. Her tongue was elevated, dyspnea, paroxysm with evidence of respiratory paralysis.

192. Which of the following spaces involved in this case?
A. Sublingual, submandibular, submucus
B. Sublingual, submental, subperitoneal
C. Sublingual, submandibular, submental
D. Submandibular, parapharyngeal, submental
E. Submandibular, buccalis, sublingual
Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan :
Kemungkinan pasien ini mengalami Ludwig’s angina, maka space yang terkena adalah : sublingual, submandibular, submental.

193. Which one is the diagnosis?
A. Osteodynitis
B. Cellulitis
C. Submandibular abscess
D. Ludwig’s angina
E. Lymphadenitis
Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : -jelas-

194. Which of the following is the most likely to be cause of mortalitiy for above disease?
A. Asphyxia and dehydration
B. Sepsis and dehydration
C. Sepsis and asphyxia
D. Dehydration and dysphagia
E. Asphyxia and dysphagia
Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan :
Komplikasi paling sering adalah asphyxia / sulit bernafas karena pembengkakan mouth floor. Komplikasi lain adalah sepsis.
195. This patient may have risk to suffer from acute necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis. Which of the following factors related to this complication?
A. Poor oral hygiene, local trauma, smoking
B. Local trauma, drug, systemic disease
C. Smoking, drug
D. Drug, poor oral hygiene
E. Poor oral hygiene, smoking
Jawaban : E.
Pembahasan :
Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) adalah infeksi progresif disertai rasa nyeri, bengkak, ulcer, & sloughing-off jaringan mati dari mulut / tenggorokan akibat infeksi gusi. Penyebabnya terutama infeksi, poor oral hygiene, stress, merokok.

196. A 25-year-old woman is 5 months pregnant had swelling at her gum at frontal region of the upper jaw since 3 months ago. The swelling was as big as a green pea. This is a reactive lesion if ginggivae composed of stratified squamous epithelium lining granulation tissue and chronic inflammatory infiltrate. What is the diagnosis?
A. Mucocele
B. Oral trush
C. Epulis granulomatosa
D. Apthous ulcer
E. Leukoplakia
Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan :
Mucocele  pembengkakan pada lower lip / buccal / tongue / mouth floor, akibat obstruksi / ruptur dari salivary gland
Oral trush  akibat candida, oral cavity keputihan
Epulis granulomatosa  tumor gusi, berupa tonjolan paling sering pada rahang atas, mudah berdarah namun tidak sakit, subtipe gravidarum
Apthous ulcer  ulcer pada oral mucosa, berupa lesi halo berwarna putih-kuning, sangat sakit
Leukoplakia  plak putih pada oral cavity, akibat merokok / alkohol


197. Fracture of the bony callus in fracture repair is followed by :
A. Hematoma formation in the middle of callus
B. Fibrocartilaginous callus formation after bone remodeling
C. Bone remodelling to convert woven bone to compact bone
D. Formation of granulation tissue to compact bone
E. Protein release from the callus
Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan :
Tahapan bone fracture repair :
Hematoma formation  Fibrocartilaginous callus formation  Bony callus formation  Bone remodelling

198. Which of the following is NOT true about hyphema?
A. Blood accumulation at anterior chamber
B. It can cause glaucoma
C. It is treated with antibiotic
D. Patient should be in bed rest
E. Topical steroid is necessary
Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan :
Hyphema = perdarahan pada anterior chamber, biasanya akibat trauma tumpul pada mata. Bisa mengakibatkan naiknya tekanan intra-okular (glaucoma). Treatment meliputi bed rest, pain reliever, tetes mata steroid untuk mencegah inflamasi, proteksi mata (coverings).

MDE DMS 2005

1. Which cells involved in in the resorption and modeling of bone tissue?
a. Osteoblast
b. Osteocytes
c. Multinucleated giant cells
d. Monocytes
e. Fibrocytes
Bone is a specialized connective tissue composed of intercellular calcified material, the bone matrix, and three cell types:
- osteocytes (osteon, bone, + kytos, cell), which are found in cavities (lacunae) within the matrix;
- osteoblasts (osteon + blastos, germ), which synthesize the organic components of the matrix;
- osteoclasts (osteon + klastos, broken), which are multinucleated giant cells involved in the resorption and remodeling of bone tissue.
Histology, Junqueira 11th, ch.8 bone

2. Which cells synthesizes the organic component of bone matrix?
a. Osteoblast
b. Osteocytes
c. Osteoclast
d. Monocytes
e. Fibrocytes

3. Which cells increased activity results in removal of bone matrix and fibrotic degeneration of fibrosa cystics?
a. Osteoblast
b. Osteocytes
c. Osteoclast
d. Monocytes
e. Fibrocytes
Osteitis fibrosa cystica, in which osteoclast activity results in removal of bone matrix and fibrous degeneration
Histology, Junqueira 11th, ch.8 bone

4. Which cells play prominent role in bone growth and repair?
a. Osteoprogenitor cells in periosteum
b. Osteoblast cells in periosteum
c. Osteoclast cells in periosteum
d. Osteocyte cells in periosteum
e. Fibrocyte cells in periosteum
The inner, more cellular layer of the periosteum is composed of fibroblastlike cells called osteoprogenitor cells, with the potential to divide by mitosis and differentiate into osteoblasts. Osteoprogenitor cells play a prominent role in bone growth and repair
Histology, Junqueira 11th, ch.8 bone

5. The organic matter in bone matrix are?
a. Type I collagen and ground substances
b. Type II collagen and ground substances
c. Type III collagen and ground substances
d. Type IV collagen and ground substances
e. Type V collagen and ground substances
The organic matter in bone matrix is type I collagen and ground substance, which contains proteoglycan aggregates and several specific structural glycoproteins
Histology, Junqueira 11th, ch.8 bone

6. Which one of the following layers in mainly for regeneration of epidermis?
a. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum lucidum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum spinosum
e. Stratum basale
Stratum Basale (Stratum Germinativum) containing stem cells, is characterized by intense mitotic activity and is responsible, in conjunction with the initial portion of the next layer, for constant renewal of epidermal cells
Stratum spinosum are filled with bundles of keratin filaments, which play an important role in maintaining cohesion among cells and resisting the effects of abrasion
Malpighian layer consists of both the stratum basale and the stratum spinosum, which contains epidermal stem cells
Stratum Granulosum acts as a barrier to penetration by foreign materials and provides a very important sealing effect in the skin
Stratum Lucidum, more apparent in thick skin, is a translucent, thin layer of extremely flattened eosinophilic epidermal cells
Stratum corneum is filled with a birefringent filamentous scleroprotein, keratin, on sole of feet
Histology, Junqueira 11th, ch.18 skin

7. Which one of the following statements is mainly for the fracture repair?
a. Osteoprogenitor cell in outer circumferential lamella
b. Osteoprogenitor cell in inner circumferential lamella
c. Osteoprogenitor cell in interstitial lamella
d. Osteoprogenitor cell in haversian system
e. Osteoprogenitor cell in endosteum
The inner, more cellular layer of the periosteum is composed of fibroblastlike cells called osteoprogenitor cells. The endosteum lines all internal cavities within the bone and is composed of a single layer of flattened osteoprogenitor cells and a very small amount of connective tissue
Periosteum and the endosteum around the fracture respond with intense proliferation producing a tissue that surrounds the fracture and penetrates between the extremities of the fractured bone
Histology, Junqueira 11th, ch.8 bone

8. Which of the following is the almost unique characteristic of biochemistry content of collagen fibers?
a. Glucosamine
b. Galactosamine
c. Glycine
d. Hidroxy proline
e. Apatite crystals
Hydroxyapatite crystals of bone appear as plates that lie alongside the collagen fibrils but are surrounded by ground substance
Histology, Junqueira 11th, ch.8 bone

9. Histology of bone matrix usually refers to the...
a. Organic material minus the collagen fiber
b. Organic material remaining after decalcification
c. Material composing the whole bone
d. Contents of hydration shell crystaline portion of the bone
e. ...
Inorganic matter represents about 50% of the dry weight of bone matrix. The organic matter in bone matrix is type I collagen and ground substance
Histology, Junqueira 11th, ch.8 bone

10. Histology longitudinal growth of long bone is accomplish by...
a. Preosteoblast on periosteum
b. Part of epiphysis
c. Part of metaphysis
d. Osteoblast and osteoclast and the other cells on the epiphyseal plate
e. ...chondrium
Endochondral ossification of a long bone consists of the following sequence of events. This process begins at the central portion of the cartilage model (diaphysis), where blood vessels penetrate through the bone collar previously perforated by osteoclasts, bringing osteoprogenitor cells to this region. Next, osteoblasts adhere to the calcified cartilage matrix and produce continuous layers of primary bone that surround the cartilaginous matrix remnants. In this way the primary ossification center is produced. Then, secondary ossification centers appear at the swellings in the extremities of the cartilage model (epiphyses)
In the secondary ossification centers, cartilage remains in two regions: the articular cartilage, which persists throughout adult life and does not contribute to bone growth in length, and the epiphyseal cartilage, also called the epiphyseal plate, which connects the two epiphyses to the diaphysis. The epiphyseal cartilage is responsible for the growth in length of the bone, and it disappears in adults, which is why bone growth ceases in adulthood
Histology, Junqueira 11th, ch.8 bone

11. In physiologic motor fiber is stimulated, the impluse arriving at the nerve ending
a. Release cholinesterase which by quota reaction cause muscle contraction
b. Creates action potential at motor end plate by formation of postiggmine-like...force
c. Release of electrical impulse to muscle fibers cause contraction
d. Activates release acetilcholyne in turn stimulates motor end plate to form propagated action potential
e. All above are true

13. Histology of bone on haversian canals have been described as containing:
a. A capillary vessel and extracellular fluid
b. A capillary and venule vessels
c. An arteriole, a venule, and a lymphatic
d. An arteriole and a venule vessels
e. An arteiole, a venule, a lymphatic, a nerve fiber, and extracellular fluid
Haversian system showing lamellae, a central blood capillary (there are also small nerves), and many osteocytes with their processes
The whole complex of concentric lamellae of bone surrounding a canal containing blood vessels, nerves, and loose connective tissue is called a haversian system, or osteon
Di gambar tortora ada lymphatic vessel
Histology, Junqueira 11th, ch.8 bone

15. Scoliosis is a condition...
a. Mainly but not always toward the CONVEXITY
b. Always toward the concavity of the curve
c. Mainly, but not always to the CONCAVITY
d. On either direction depending upon muscle imbalance rather than the direction of the curve
e. Indometachine
Scoliosis (crooked or curved back) is characterized by an abnormal lateral curvature that is accompanied by rotation of the vertebrae. The spinous processes turn toward the cavity of the abnormal curvature, and when the individual bends over, the ribs rotate posteriorly (protrude) on the side of the increased convexity.
Anatomy, Moore 5th, ch.4 back

17. Classifying a peripheral nerve injury according to SEDDON, a complete severance is defined:
a. Axonotmesis
b. Neurotmesis
c. Neuropraxia
d. Complete
e. Transverse
Axonotmesis → gangguan axon → wallerian degeneration, konduksi atau transmisi syaraf terganggu, tapi continuity syaraf dan endoneural tube nya masih ada → masih bisa regenerasi
Neurotmesis → paling parah → konduksi syaraf terganggu dan wallerian degeneration → continuity sarafnya sudah tidak ada → endoneural tube hancur → hasil regenerasinya: banyak akson baru yang tdk bisa mencapai segmen distal syaraf → fungsinya tdk akan pernah kembali normal
Neuropraxia → reversible physiological nerve conduction block → spontaneous recovery
Sekarang klasifikasi nerve injury:
- grade 1 → neuropraxia
- grade 2 → axonotmesis
- grade 3 → axonotmesis
- grade 4 → axonotmesis
- grade 5 → neurotmesis
Appley 8th, p231 tabel 11.1

18. You are the first to see the patient in ER following traffic accident. The pateint is obviously onjured with closed fracture of left extremities. The most important first sign of Volkman’s ischemia is...
a. Cold and cyanosis of the fingers
b. Pallor of fingers
c. Obliterations of the radial pulse (pulseness)
d. Paralysis of the flexor and extensor muscle in forearm
e. Pain
Nerve is capable of regeneration but muscle, once infarcted, can never recovered and is replaced by inelastic fibrous tissue (Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture).
Volkman ischemia is final sequale of acute compartment syndrome
Volkmann’s contracture is fibrosis and shortening of muscle due to inadequate blood supply. It is a complication that arise if the blood supply is interrupted by pressure on the blood vessel from a fracture fragment, or from raised pressure due to compartment syndrome, or by pressure fromconstricting bandages and plaster cast
Classic feature of ischaemia are the five Ps: pain (earliest), paraesthesia, pallor, paralysis, pulselessness
Appley 8th, p563-564

19. A greenstick fracture of the midshaft of the radius and ulna in 4 years old child is observed to have 10o of angulations. The best treatment wolud be (under general anasthetic):
a. Without reposition, cast the arm
b. Straighten the extremity to less than 5o and apply cast
c. Anatomical induction, reduce the deformity to 0o and apply cast
d. No plate’s pain is required and simple splinting will surfice
e. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
Tidak perlu dilakukan tindakan operasi karena bisa menyebabkan komplikasi yang lebih besar, tetapi tulang harus tetap direposisi ke tempat semula (reduce)

20. 5 years old boys has an acute hematogenous ostemyelitis in the distal right femur for 10 days duration. The treatment of choice would be
a. Surgical draining covered by antibiotics
b. Blood culture and sensitivity test and give antibiotic selected from the sensitive group
c. Blood culture, sensitivity test and suregery covered by selected antibiotics
d. Surgical drainage and culture of surgery followed by an antibiotic of proven sensitivity
e. Broad spectrum antibiotic, surgical and culture of surgery followed by an antibiotic of proven sensitivity
Tidak perlu surgical, tetapi dicari bakteri penyebabnya, kemudian diberikan antibiotik yang bekerja spesifik untuk bakteri tersebut

23. Radiation therapy is the LEAST value in
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Ewing’s sarcoma
c. Angiosarcoma
d. Reticulosarcoma
e. Chondrosarcoma
Osteosarcoma → wide resection of tumor and chemoterapy
Ewing’s sarcoma → radotherapy has dramatic effect
Reticulosarcoma → chemotherapy and radial section, radiotherapy is reserved for less accessible lesion
Chondrosarcoma → amputasi, doesn’t respond to either radiotherapy or chemotherapy
Appley 8th, p184-191

26. Bone pain may be presenting complaint in
a. Malignant secondary bone tumor
b. Leukimia
c. MM (multiple myeloma)
d. Osteomalacia
e. All of above

27. Serum alkaline phosphatase level is significantly raised in disease of:
a. Scurfy
b. Arthrogyplasia
c. Sterile osteoporosis
d. Secondary bone tumors
e. Parther disease of hip (avascular...)
Alkaline phosphatase increased in tumor of bone
Henry 25th, p256

28. The deep branch of the ulnar nerve in the hand:
a. Supplies all the lumbrical muscle
b. Profundus muscle
c. The skin of the little finger
d. Adduction pollicis
e. When paralysed produced clawing of all the fingers in that hand
Ulnar nerve
- origin: Larger terminal branch of medial cord, receiving fibers from C8, T1 and often C7
- course: Descends medial arm; passes posterior to medial epicondyle of humerus; then descends ulnar aspect of forearm to hand
- structure innervated: Flexor carpi ulnaris and ulnar half of flexor digitorum profundus (forearm); most intrinsic muscles of hand; skin of hand medial to axial line of digit 4, 5
Anatomy, Moore 5th, ch6 upper limb, tabel 6.5

29. The patient get a lesion of median nerve at the level of the elbow caused by supra...humerus
a. Result in loss of flexion of the thumb
b. Result in loss of flexion of index finger
c. Due to closed fracture is managed by conservative treatment
d. Under general anasthetic, reposition and immobilization
e. All of the above correct
Median nerve innervated muscles of anterior forearm compartment (except for flexor carpi ulnaris and ulnar half of flexor digito-rum profundus), five intrinsic muscles in thenar half of palm and palmar skin
Median Nerve Injury
When the median nerve is severed in the elbow region, flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joints of the 1st and 3rd fingers is lost and flexion of the 4th and 5th fingers is weakened. Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints of the 2nd and 3rd fingers is also lost. Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th fingers is not affected because the medial part of the FDP, which produces these movements, is supplied by the ulnar nerve. The ability to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints of the 2nd and 3rd fingers is affected because the digital branches of the median nerve supply the 1st and 2nd lumbricals. Thus, when the person attempts to make a fist, the 2nd and 3rd fingers remain partially extended. Thenar muscle function (function of the muscles at the base of the thumb) is also lost, as in carpal tunnel syndrome
Closed fracture biasanya ditreatment dengan closed reduction (reposition atau immobilization), perlu dilakukan tindakan anasthesia
Anatomy, Moore 5th, ch6 upper limb

30. Acute poliomyelitis in Bogor area is a viral infection that primary affects (damage) what...the nervous system
a. Posterior column of spinal cord
b. White matter of the spinal cord
c. Cerebral motor cortex
d. Frontal lobe
e. Anterior horn cells at the spinal cord
Poliomyelitis: an infectious virus disease affecting CNS. Poliovirus invades the CNS and replicate in motor neuron of the spinal cord (spinal poliomyelitis) or brain stem (bulbar poliomyelitis)
Acute case show mononuclear cell perivascular cuff and neurophagia of the anterior horn motor neuron of the spinal cord
Pathology, Robin Cotran 7th, p364, p1374

31. A 12 years old girl has a 26 idiophatic thoracic scoliosis with the apex at the T9. She is past menarche and is Risser stage I. The management consist of:
a. Use milwakuee brace
b. Conservation and radiographic evaluation in 3-4 months
c. Electrical stimulation
d. Postural exercise
e. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis
Hold reduction dengan mengunakan bracing Milwaukee

32. Secondary bone tumor:
a. Are chiefly found in vertebrae, skull and upper ends of humerus and femur
b. From prostate are usually osteoblastic
c. Cause hypercalcemia
d. From breats cancer are usually osteolytic
e. All of the above correct
Secondary bone tumor (metastatic bone disease):
- skeleton adalah daerah yang paling sering termetastasis oleh kanker dari daerah lain
- sumber kanker yang paling banyak adalah payudara, berikutnya prostat, kidney, lung, thyroid, bladder, dan GI tract
- tempat yang paling terkena kanker sekunder: vertebra, pelvis, proximal half femur dan humerus
- biasanya bersifat osteolitik dan sering terjadi fraktur patologis, kecuali kanker prostat yang bersifat osteoblastik
- CF: pain, fraktur, gejala hiperkalsemi (anorexia, nausea, thirst, polyuria, abdominal pain, weakness, depresi)
Appley 8th, p193-194

33. A plaster of Paris cast:
a. Is usually applied on a padding of cotton
b. The next day patient must be controlled for compartment syndrome
c. If tight be split completely right down to the cotton wool
d. Can be wedge to correct angular deformity in management of closed fracture shaft of tibia
e. All of the above are correct
Plaster of paris cast can be wedge if further correction of angulation is necessary
Appley 8th, p551
A preparation of gypsum (calcium sulphate) that sets hard when water is added. It is used to make plaster cast, untuk memfiksasi bagian tubuh (dorland)

For number 114-118 see clinical scenario below :
An adult male comes to your ER 2 hours after burn injury due to flame. He gets burn in … of his face and neck, the whole right arm, chest, abdomen, groin. After a thorough physical examination, doctor gives him oxygen and infusion.

114. Burn extent examination in this patient is :
A. Burn grade I-II 35%
B. Burn grade II 39%
C. Burn grade II-III 27%
D. Burn grade II-III 36%
E. Burn grade III 29%
Jawaban : (?)
Pembahasan :
Face & neck (%), whole right arm (9%), chest & abdomen (18%), groin (1%). Total 32.5%.

115. According to Baxter-Parkland formula of the fluid resuscitation should be given is :
A. 7800 cc in the first 16 hours
B. 7200 cc in the first 24 hours
C. 3500 cc in the first 8 hours
D. 3600 cc in the first 26 hours
E. 5400 cc in the first 24 hours
Jawaban : (?)
Pembahasan :
Baxter Parkland formula  4cc per weight (kg) per %TBSA in first 24 hours.
Divided to 6 periods (each 4 hours)
Period 1,2  each 25%
Period 3,4,5,6  each 12.5%

116. In his right arm, you could see burn wound that is erythematous, bullae (+), pin prick test (+). It is classified into wound :
A. Grade I
B. Grade II A
C. Grade III B
D. Grade III
E. Grade IV
Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan :
1st degree burn  sampai epidermis (+ erythema, pain, peeling)
2nd degree burn :
 Superficial Partial Thickness  sampai upper dermis / papillary layer (+ blister, pain, moist)
 Deep Partial Thickness  sampai lower dermis / reticular layer (+ mottled, less sensation, hypertrophic scar result)
3rd degree burn  sampai subcutaneous tissue, bahkan sampai bone / muscle (+ painless, white/cherry-red/black, dry, leathery, skin graft is needed)


121. The … for nerve impulses into the muscle occurs at the …
A. Muscle level
B. Fiber level
C. Myofibril level
D. Sarcomer level
E. Fascia level
Jawaban : (?)  B.
Pembahasan :
Proses penghantaran impuls saraf dari sel saraf (neuron) ke sel otot melibatkan peran T-tubule, sarcoplasmic reticulum, myofibril yang ketiganya itu terdapat pada level muscle fiber (= sel otot).

122. In shortening (contraction) of the functional unit of the muscle :
A. The myosin “walks” along the actin filaments
B. The actin “walks” along the myosin filaments
C. The actin and myosin filaments move toward each other
D. The actin and myosin filaments shorten individually
E. The actin filament is shorten
Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Tortora hlm 299-300 “The Sliding Filament Mechanism”

123. To produce movement of a limb …
A. One sarcomer acts independently
B. Several sarcomeres, myofibrils, and fibers must be active
C. Only one fiber need to be active
D. Only one myofibril need to be active
E. Several fascicles must be active
Jawaban : E.
Pembahasan :
Untuk pergerakan limb dibutuhkan kontraksi skeletal muscle, yang terdiri dari beberapa fascicles yang terbungkus epimysium.

124. The determinant factor in the action of 2 joint muscles is :
A. The proximity of the muscle belly to each of the joints
B. The length of the movement arm at each joints
C. The shape of bony components of each joints
D. The direction of muscle fibers relative to the joint
E. The strength of the muscles to the joints
Jawaban : (?)
Pembahasan : (?)

125. The shaft of the bone is properly called the …
A. Epiphysis
B. Periosteum
C. Diaphysis
D. Compact bone
E. Metaphysis
Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : bagian tengah dari bone disebut diaphysis

126. Fracture of the bony callus in fracture repair is followed by :
A. Hematoma formation
B. Fibrocartilaginous callus formation
C. Bone remodelling to convert compact bone
D. Formation of granulation tissue
E. Protein release from the callus
Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan :
Tahapan bone farcture repair :
Hematoma formation  Fibrocartilaginous callus formation  Bony callus formation  Bone remodelling

127. Fracture in which the bone ends are incompletely separated is …
A. Greenstick
B. Compound
C. Simple
D. Comminuted
E. Compression
Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan :
Greenstick fracture  fraktur parsial di mana salah satu sisinya patah, sedangkan sisi lainnya masih tersambung namun menjadi bengkok.

128. Remodelling of the bone is a function of these cells :
A. Chondroblast – osteocyte
B. Osteoblast – osteoclast
C. Chondroblast – osteocyte
D. Osteoblast – osteocyte
E. Osteoblast – osteocyte
Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan :
Osteoblast  bone deposition
Osteoclast  bone absorption

130) jaw : D ;reference : moore,developing human,8th ed;pg 377
131)
132) C ; reference : moore,developing human,8th ed;pg 440
133)C
134)B ; reference : moore,developing human,8th ed;pg 339
137)
137)B ; reference : moore,developing human,8th ed ; pg 352-353
138)
138)C ; explaination:the lens develops from the lens vesicle,a derivative of the surface ectoderm (moore,developing human,8th ed ; pg 427)
139)B
139)B ; explaination:congenital dislocation of hip : 1)heritage-multifactorial pattern of inheritance ; 2)acetabulum and head of femur (moore,developing human,8th ed ; pg 377)
140)A ; reference : junqueira,basic histology,11th ed
143)A or B ; explaination: radial groove-it is a depression for the radial nerve and deep brachial vessels;fracture of the humerus at mid shaft can injure the radial nerve and deep brachial vessels b`coz they are in contact with bone at this location (medical gross anatomy,university of Mich Medical School)
you can also referred to moore,clinically oriented anatomy pg 793,for more detail,then compare both answers
144)B ; explaination : when it is necessary to ligate the femoral artery,anastomasis of branches of the femoral artery with other arteries that cross the hip joint,may supply blood to lower limb.however,the cruciate anastomosis,consisting of a 4-way common meeting of the medial & lateral circumflex femoral arteries with the inferior gluteal artery superiorly & the 1st perforating artery inferiorly posterior to the femur,occurs less commonly than its frequent description in textbooks & depiction in atlases implies (moore,clinically oriented anat,5th ed ; pg 604)
145)C ; reference : moore,developing human,8th ed ; pg 449
146)B ; cell of the inner ep. Differentiate into ameloblast (moore,developing human,7th ed ; pg 469)
147)A ; the arrector pili muscles are bundles of smooth muscle cells.their contraction results in the erection of the hair shaft to a more upright position (junqueira,basic histology,11th ed ; chapter 18)
148)D ; secrete RAR & RXRboth are members of steroid thyroid hormones superfamily (Fitzpatrick,5th ed ; pg 128-129)
149)A ; can check it in past year compilation
150)E ; after correctly diagnosing a cutaneous disease,the dermatologist must consider a myriad option in formulating an effective treatment plan : selection of an appropriate agent,consideration of the areas of the body affected,the state of the disease skin,concentration of the drug…(Fitzpatrick 6th ed,chapter 242.principle of topical therapy)
151)B ; slide DERMATOTHERAPY
152)E ; slide DERMATOTHERAPY
153)A ; wet dressing is recommended for use on severely affected or chronically involved areas of dermatitis refractory to therapy.wet dressing has potential to promote drying & fissuring of skin (topical therapy – atopic dermatitis chapter 122)
156)C ; Fitzpatrick 6th ed ;pg 807
158)E ; Fitzpatrick chapter 44
159)C ; hyphema –hemorrhage within the anterior chamber of the eye ;treatment-rest in bed with the head of the bed elevated as much as u can tolerat;steroid dropto fight inflammation & pain (emedicine)
165)A ; treatment of congenital cataract requires surgery,typically at a very early age (younger than 4 months) –moore,developing human,8th ed ; pg 429
166)D ; excessive tearing (epiphora) is occasionally due to canalicular stenosis.in infantile dacryocystitis (inflammation of lacrimal sac),the site of stenosis is usually at the valve of Hasner
167)B ; many cases of infection may still be ‘culture negative’ (Vaughan ophthalmology)
168)B ; hyperacute purulent conjunctivitis caused by M.gonorrhea is transmitted through sex contact.copious green pus is produced and the lid are often extremely edematous.preauricular lymphadenopathy is common.immediate intervention is critical to prevent perforation of corneal ulcers caused by bacterial exotoxins.gram stain and culture of the conjunctiva should be performed.copious irrigation with saline solution is required yo dilute the toxins.systemic antibiotics are required.3rd-generation cephalosporins may be givan intramuscularly/intravenously.adjunctive topical treatment with ciprofloxacin,gentamicin or bacitracin may be helpful. (cecil,textbook of medicine,22nd ed ; pg 2411-2412)
statement of ans E would be correct if the word ‘not’ is deleted,but,if not,the answer would be B and E
169)D ; treatment for corneal ulcer : xboleh dibebat,karena akan menaikkan suhu sehingga akan berfungsi sbg incubator ; diberi antibiotika sesuai dgn kuasa (ilmu penyakit mata UI)
170)C ; can referred to past year questions’ book
171)B ; the fenamates are derivatives of N-phenylanthranilic acid.they include mefenamic,meclofenamic,and flufenamic acid (Pharmacological basis and therapeutics ,goodman & gilman)
172)A ; prolongation bleeding time is common side effect no t specific ; sede effect of mefenamic is hemolytic anemia
173)B ; 1)choice of drug for children :aspirin,naproxen,tolmetin and acetaminophen.aspirin is associated with Reye’s syndrome in children. 2)pregnant women : NSAIDs generally is not recommended.low doses of aspirin propably the safest. 3)piroxicam for treatment dysmenorrheal,acute musculoskeletal disorder,potop pain,and acute gout. 4)acetaminophen for patient in whom aspirin is contraindicated
174)A ; probenecid-uricosuric drugs employed to decrease the body pool of urate in patients with tophaceous gout/in those with increasingly frequent gouty attacks (Katzung 9th ed ; pg 596-598)
175)D ; external application-methyl salicylate ( ‘oil of wintergreen’)is used externally as a cutaneous counterirritant in liniments. (lippincott’s,pharmacology,3rd ed ; pg 500)
176)D ; etodolac is slightly more COX-2-selective than most other NSAIDs (katzung) ; celecoxibcox-2-inhibitor(Lippincott,3rd ed,495)
177)D ; intoxication is not rare.the other statement are correct
178)D ; refer book of past year question
179)E ; piroxicam is a nonselective COX inhibitor but at high concentration also inhibits polymorphomuclear leukocyte migaration,decreases oxygen radical production,and inhibits lymphocyte f(x).its long half-life permits once daily dosing.piroxicam can be used for the usual rheumatic indications (katzung,9th ed ;pg 596-598)
180)B ; mycobacteria are notorious for their ability to develop resistance.combinations of two /more drugs are required to overcome these obstacles and to prevent emergence of resistance during the course of therapy (katzung)
181)D ; mini lecture radiodiagnostic,slide no.58
182)D ; mini lecture radiodiagnostic,slide no.51
185)A ; CT scan is sensitive in demonstrating mucosal thickening and revealing trapped secretions within the sinus cavities.(otorhinolaryngology).b`coz of mucosal thickening,the antrum become thinning
186)B ; skeletal tuberculosis-weght bearing joint (spine-40% cases,hips-13%,knees-10%) are most commonly affected (Harrison,internal medicine,17th ed ; pg 1012)
187)C ; lab man
188)C ; any cancer can spread to bone,but,in adults,>75% of skeletal metastases originate from cancers of prostate,breast,kidney and lung (robbins & cotran,7th ed ; pg 1303)
189)
190)
191)D ; mitochondrial DNA reference from maternal lineage available (minilecture Forensic Identification,slide no.35)
192)B

MDE DMS 2004

1. Jawaban:C
Alasan : ameloblast berasal dari inner enamel epithelium / ectoderm (moore embryology hlm 449)
2. Jawaban : B
Alasan : sama dgn buku
3. Jawaban : C
Alasan : agak ga yakin, tapi yang pasti fungsi arrector pili untuk bikin rambut berdiri (goosebump effect)
4. Jawaban : E
Alasan : sama dengan buku
5. Jawaban : C / E
Alasan : Moore hlm 75
6. Jawaban : E
Alasan : sama dengan buku
7. Jawaban : C / D
Alasan : sama dengan buku
8. Jawaban : B
Alasan : sama dengan buku
9. Jawaban : B
Alasan : sama dengan buku
10. Jawaban : A
Alasan : sama dengan buku
11. Jawaban : Resemble normal basal cell of epidermis, arise from epidermis or follicular epithelium. Two patterns : multifocal growths and nodular lesions (Robbins hlllm 1243)
12. Jawaban : C
Alasan : jaringan lipid ga punya nuclei
13. Jawaban : C
Alasan : sama dengan buku
14. Jawaban : A
Alasan : sama dengan buku
15. Jawaban : B
Alasan : sama dengan buku
16. Jawaban : E
Alasan : sama dengan buku
17. Jawaban : B
18. Jawaban : A
Alasan : sama dengan buku
19. Jawaban : B
Alasan : Moore anatomy hlm 603
20. Jawaban : C
Alasan : lab muscle contraction
21. Jawaban : D
Alasan : interactive pgysiology bagian skeletal tissue
22. Jawaban : B
Alasan : sama dengan buku
23. Jawaban : A
24. Jawaban : C
Alasan : sama dengan buku
25. Jawaban : A
Alasan : sama dengan buku
26. Jawaban : D
Alasan : fascicle  fibers yang dikelilingi CT
27. Jawaban : D
28. Jawaban : A
Alasan : sama dengan buku
29. Jawaban : A
Alasan : sama dengan buku
30. Jawaban : B
Alasan : osteoblast  pembentukan, osteoclast  perombakan
31. Jawaban : A
Alasan : sama dengan buku
32. Jawaban : semua benar
33. Jawaban : D
Alasan : sama dengan buku
34. Jawaban : D
Alasan : sama dengan buku
35. Jawaban : D
Alasan : sama dengan buku
36. Jawaban : D
Alasan : sama dengan buku
37. Jawaban : D
Alasan : sama dengan buku
38. Jawaban : B
Alasan : ciri khas TB
39. Jawaban : E
Alasan : sama dengan buku
40. Jawaban : A
41. Jawaban : D
Alasan : sama dengan buku
42. Jawaban : B
Alasan : sama dengan buku
43. Jawaban : B
Alasan : tumor marker ada klo ada tumor
44. Jawaban : A
Alasan : sama dengan buku
45. Jawaban : E
Alasan : case review 07
46. Jawaban :
Alasan : B, D benar
47. Jawaban : C
Alasan : ada peningkatan ESR
48. Jawaban : A
Alasan : slide dermotherapy
49. Jawaban : D
Alasan : slide dermotherapy
50. Jawaban : A
Alasan : itchy skin lesions; lesions become dark, thick, and leathery with round scaly plaque underneath. The lesions may have well-defined rectangular borders, or present in oval, irregular, or angular shapes; exaggerated skin lines in the lesions; usual locales -- nape of the neck, forearms, area on inside of elbows, wrists, inner thighs, behind the knees, and lower legs
51. Jawaban : A
Alasan : perlu sirkulasi udara yg baik
52. Jawaban : B
Alasan : sama dengan buku
53. Jawaban : B
54. Jawaban : D
Alasan : untuk melihat soft tissue
56 e.GCS. untuk mengetahui seseorang jatuh kea rah shocked atau improvement setelah dilakukan resusitasi adalah:
1. CNS : improvement dari GCS
2. Renal : increase urine output
3. Skin: warm and capillary refill
4. Pulmonary : improved rate and depth
5. Vital sign : return to normal
57.C. (dari hasil eliminasi.. sumber: Chapman orthopaedic surgery 3rd ed)
(A) justru high velocity berakibat great tissue damage yang terkena atau yang dileawati oleh peluru
(B). penjelasan sama dengan option A jika yg kena langsung ke nerve
(D). membutuhkan 2 stage debridement, yaitu initiall debridement (directly), kedua, 48-72 jam setelah initial debridement
(E).apabila tidak diremove, maka bisa berakibat adanya abrasi mekanik di daerah sendi. Meski hal itu tidak terjadi, maka resiko adanya infeksi tidak pernah hilang.
58. C.. sudah jelas apabila ada riwayat open fracture  di suture dan terjadi gejala2 komplikasi septic kurang dari 24 jam, maka bakteri yang berperan adalah anaerob (dalam hal ini Clostridium welchii). Maka dilihat dari option, yang paling mungkin dari waktu dan gejala yg timbul adalah gangrene. (appley: complication of fracture)
59. volkman’s ischemic = contracture dari muscle fiber karena direplace oleh jaringan fibrosis. Maka penampakan klinisnya adalah weakness of flexor muscle. (Appley: complication of fracture)
60. A. (jalan ceritanya mirip di case kita)
61. ???? (sori pisan ga nemu reffrencenya). 2 joint muscle itu otot yang origo-insersionya melewati 2 sendi, contohnya bicep brachii.. tapi jawaban kayanya mengarah ke C, karena prinsip pergerakan tulang-sendi, tergantung di mana origo-insersionya sehingga menentukan jenis aksi dari otot tersebut. (mohon dikoreksi juga)
72. D. Appley hal 193: in patient over 50 years, bone metastases seen more frequently than all primary malignant bone tumors together. The commonest source is carcinoma of the breast.
74. E . gambarannya berupa loss of trabecular pada X-ray tanpa adanya swelling dari soft tissue sekitar.

75.B. (hasil eliminasi)
(A). post menopause condition dianggap sebagai physiologic condition
(C). diagnosis pastinya adalah dengan X-Ray
(D). manage seharusnya dengan supplement, early exercise, dan Hormone replacement therapy (jika ada keterlibatan dengan hormone = pada post menopausal osteoporosis)
76. B. appley hal 81, gambar 5.5 clinical feature.
77. B. Appley hal 684
80. B. Case review 2006 management dari snake bite
81. C Systemic sign dari snake bite:
- hypotension and shock
- neurotoksisitas: muntah2, kontraksi frontal, penglihatan kabur,nyeri kepala, paresthesis peroral, otonom hyperexcitation, penurunan kesadaran. Maka jika dihubungkan dengan option, maka jawabannya C
82. ?? soal kurang lengkap
84. D. yang menjadi provide durability barrier adalah collagen. Basal cell provide mitosis process for renewing epidermal cells
85. E. Fitzpatrick ed 6, tidak ada penjelasan mengenai pressure barrier, yang ada adalah mechanical barrier dari mechanical blunt trauma
86. ?
87. b. pertama adalah BCC, kedua squamous cell carcinoma. (lab act PA)
88.?
91. ?
92. impairment: any loss/ abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function
Disability : activity limitation that creates a difficulty in the performance, accomplishment, or completion of an activity in the manner or within the range that considered normal in human being.
Diliat dari definisi: A
93. D
94. B.
95. B
97. handicap : setiap cacat berupa fisik/mental, congential/acquired yang membatasi/mencegah seseorang berpartisipasi dalam kehidupan normal/ kemampuan bekerja.
Maka dari sini, menggambarkan posisi seseorang dalam kehidupan social, jawabannya A
99. B. uda jelas ya..
100 dan 101. Kurang yakin, karena ga ada sumber buku yang menjelaskan efek dari chronic edema pasca fraktur.tapi, dari analisa, akibat dari edema adalah adanya peningkatan tekanan di dalam fascia sehingga reduce blood perfusion ke otot, akibatnya proses kontraksi jadi lemah. Dengan demikian, muscle weakness + penurunan blood perfusion berakibat muscle wating.. jadi sepertinya D
103. E. joint contracture bisa berasal dari fibrosis di otot, jaringan penunjang otot, atau jaringan penunjang joint sehingga berakibat resistensi terhadap regangan pasif. Dengan demikian lebih mengarah ke jawaban E.
105.?
106. C. case review 2006 tentang Ludwigg’s angina
107. soal kurang lengkap..
108. ga tau jawabannya yang mana, tapi saya dapet faktor2nya:
- poor hygiene
- systemic disease
- trauma
- DM
109. B. dari Labman PA tentang ameloblastoma
110. E.
111. E. gambaran lesinya sesuai dengan penyebaran radix
113. B. karena ada impaired pain sensation dari umbilical ke bawah (T10)
114. B. dibuktikan adanya sensory loss di C5-T1 dan absent tendon2 reflex yang berasal dari sumber yang sama (motoric B.plexus)
116. C. (catatatn kuliah), anthropologist memiliki kemampuan mengidentifikasi bone dan skeletal remains sehingga menyediakan informasi mengenai sex, race, age, dan waktu kematian
117.D, jika istrinya A: IA IA atau IA IO dan suaminya: seperti istrinya atau IB IB atau IB IO
118. B ada di buku mini lecture
120. C. ada di buku mini lecture
122. E. Visum et repertum, melakukan pemeriksaan fisik yang berkenaan dengan kekerasan fisik, kejahatan susila,jenazah, dan psikiatrik. Dasar hukumnya adalah KUHAP pasal 186 dan 187c
123. ga ada jawabannya.
(A). jikaterjadi advance lesion berupa ulceration bisa terjadi extensive local tissue destruction
(B) lebih sering di male
(C) dan (D) Sensitve radiotherapy dengan prognosis yang baik, tp memiliki resiko kerusakan cosmetic dalam waktu 15 tahun ke depan (khususnya pada non elderly people)
126??
127. B. Hasil dari kultur corneal scrapping merevealed positif terbanyak = pseudomonas aureginosa  gram negative
129. C. di Bunga rampai parasitology, CLM ini masuk ke dalam larva nematode.
132. Geographical epidemiology of CLM ?
D. Most common occur in USA
Demographic Distribution of CLM
Endemic in deprived communities. Tropical and subtropical areas, especially southeastern United States, Caribbean, Africa, Central/South America, Southeast Asia. (Fitzpatrick)
133. Gnathostoma spinigerum ?
A. Cause cutaneous larva migrans only
Visceral larva migrans characterized by persistent hypereosinophilia, hepatomegaly, and frequently pneumonitis (Loeffler's syndrome). Caused by Toxocara canis, T. cati, A. lumbricoides.(Fitzpatrick)
134. People at risk of CLM ?
D. Plumber
Activities and occupations that pose risk include contact with sand/soil contaminated with animal feces: playing in sandbox, walking barefoot or sitting on beach, working in crawl spaces under houses, gardeners and plumbers, farmers, electricians, carpenters, pest exterminators. (Fitzpatrick)
135. Not pathology of CLM ?
E. Larvae burrow in the subcutaneous
Third-stage larvae penetrate human skin and migrate up to several centimeters a day, usually between stratum germinativum and stratum corneum. Parasite induces localized eosinophilic inflammatory reaction. Most larvae are unable to develop further or invade deeper tissues and die after days or months. (Fitzpatrick)
136. Larva found in biopsy ?
D. Taken just upper of the clinically evident tract
Part of the parasite can be seen on biopsy specimens from the advancing point of the lesion(s). (Fitzpatrick)
137. Larva’s complete life cycle ?
?
139. Not true about clinical manifestasion of CLM ?
E. Creating tunnel within subcutaneous
See no. 135.
141. Diagnostic of CLM ?
E. All true (based on clinical evidence, based on tract, larvae rarely found, larvae beyond the serpiginous tract)
142. Best prevention for CLM contamination ?
B. Avoid exposed skin with soil
Prevention of CLM
Avoid direct skin contact with fecally contaminated soil. (Fitzpatrick)
143. Reducing soil contamination by larvae causing CLM ?
C. Periodic deworming by cats and dogs
Infestation Helminth(s) Comments
Cutaneous larva migrans Primarily Ancylostoma braziliense and A. caninum Larvae of dog/cat hookworms

144. Ineffective treatment of CLM ?
?
Topical Agents
Thiabendazole, ivermectin, albendazole are effective topically. (Fitzpatrick)
147. Strongyloides stercoralis life cycle ?
B. Skin penetration-lungs-adult in intestine-egg-rhabditiform+filariform-autoinfection, direct infection, and indirect in external environment. (Pediatric Nelson)
148. Children who are more likely to get CLM ?
C. Contact with contaminated soil
149. Pleomorphic adenoma ?
?
150. Not included to the feature of osteosarcoma ?
?
152. Retina is originated from ?
D. Optic vesicles
As the lens vesicles are developing, the optic vesicles invaginate to form double-walled optic cups. The retina develops from the walls of the optic cup, an outgrowth of the forebrain. (Embryology Moore)
153. A 5 month old baby boy has 4 fingers in one of his hands; 2 of the fingers are fused. During the development of foot and hand, fingers are formed when cell death in the apical ectoderm ridge separates into 5 parts. Baby’s abnormality is called ?
D. Syndactyly
Cutaneous syndactyly results from failure of the webs to degenerate between two or more digits. (Embryology Moore)
154. Development of the ear begin with ?
C. Meatal plug
156. During development of face, secondary palate is formed by outgrowth from ?
C. Maxillary prominence
The secondary palate begins to develop early in the sixth week from 2 mesenchymal projections that extend from the internal aspects of the maxillary prominences. (Embryology Moore)
157. During development of tibial endochondral bone. Which cells begin to form the cartilaginous model ?
A. Chondroblast
158. During development of vertebrae, cells of the sclerotome surrounds the spinal cord and notochord, the notochord regress to form ?
C. Nucleus pulposus
Between the vertebrae, the notochord expands to form the gelatinous center of the invertebral disc – the nucleus pulposus. (Embryology Moore)
159. Physical abnormalities is asymmetry of back and chest. Radiographic examination, successive vertebrae found asymmetry and one vertebrae is missing.
A. Scoliosis
Scoliosis; a hemivertebrae results from failure of one of the chondrification centers to appear & subsequent failure of half of the vertebrae to form. (Embryology Moore)
160. In osteomyelitic, the radiographical features of sequestrum ?
?
162. Main features of osteomyelitis in long bones is ?
A. Usually derives from metaphysis
Apley page 29
163. What is the possible diagnosis of lesion of epiphyseal with soap bubble appearance ?
D. Giant cell tumor
Apley page 181
164. The most possible diagnosis for infiltration of osteolytic… in play X-ray photo of skull ?
?
165. In metastase of malignancy to columnar vertebralis. The predilection area would be ?
?
166. Radiological features of Colle’s fracture ?
A. Fracture at distal radius with post angulation and radial dislocation
Apley page 616
169. Specific radiologic signs of maxillary sinusitis ?
?
171. Radiological appearance of osteoporosis ?
A. Thin bone cortex, thin trabeculae, diminished in number
172. Radiologic appearance of chronic abscess which is surrounded by marked sclerosis is known as ?
B. Brodie’s abscess
Apley page 32
175. Sunray or sunburst appearance of periosteal reaction is found in ?
C. Osteogenic sarcoma (or osteosarcoma)
Apley page 185
177. The primary quasi malignant bone tumor is ?
C. Osteosarcoma
Apley page 185
178. Radiological features of spondylitis TB ?
B. Paravertebral abscess
Apley page 44
180. If we saw that the patient had oral cancer T2 N2 it means that ?
?
181. Which part of the cell cycle that the tumor is most radioresistant ?
A. G0
185. Most frequent cranial nerve damage that happens in patients of nasopharynx carcinoma ?
D. VI
The most common deficits are ophthalmoplegia (CN VI), ptosis (CN III), and pain and anesthesia of the supraorbital and superior maxillary regions (CN V1 followed by CN V2). (Pubmed)
186. In nasopharynx carcinoma, intracranial infiltration/extension most frequently through ?
D. Foramen lacerum
Cavernous sinus invasion occurs because the tumor tracks through the foramen lacerum, which often leads to multiple CN deficits. (Pubmed)
187. To differentiate medullary thyroid carcinoma and other thyroid carcinoma, we use ?
A. Calcitonin
Calcitonin is the principal biochemical marker in MTC; it is used for detection, staging, postoperative management, and prognosis. (emedicine)
189. A 56 years old man came to ENT clinic, has hoarseness for 6 months with dyspnea. On physical examination it’s found that one of his vocal cord have tumor with immobility. Neck node size… , no other enlargement. What ‘T’ does the patient have ?
?
192. A lady is diagnosed to have tumor. Ther’s a swelling … you detected a lymph node enlargement at mid jugular. No other lymph node enlargement on other area is detected. What is the location of the lymph node enlargement at the neck ? which level ?
?
193. During development of hand and foot, the mesenchyme between prospective digits in the hand and foot plates will break down. If mesenchyme fails to break down, result in abnormality called ?
C. Syndactyly
Abnormal fusion is usually restricted to the fingers or toes (syndactyly). Normally mesenchyme between prospective digits in the handplates and footplates breaks down. (Langman’s Embryology page 191)
197. Etiological agent for opthalmia neonatorum ?
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Opthalmia neonatorum due to N. gonorrhoeae usually appears from 1-4 days after birth. (Nelson Pediatrics)
198. In wound healing, increase collagen synthesis and proliferation of blood vessels occur in …
A. Fibroplasias phase
B. Remodeling phase
C. Inflammatory phase
D. Coagulation phase
E. Bag phase
Jawaban : (?)  A/B.
Pembahasan :
Collagen synthesis  fibroplasia phase
Proliferation of blood vessels / angiogenesis  remodelling phase

199. A burn patient …
A. No hospitalization required
B. Fluid resuscitation
C. Urinary catheter
D. Skin grafting
Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan :
Treatment utama untuk burn patient secara general  fluid resuscitation

MDE DMS 2008

1. A 35 y.o. man underwent partial thyroidectomy for hyperthyroidism in which the thyoid failed to take up radioactive iodine. He is noted to have some hoarseness of voice 1 month later. Which of the following nerve is most likely injured?
A. Superior laryngeal nerve
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Spinal accessory nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve
Jawaban : B
Alasan : Hoarseness is the usual sign of unilateral recurrent nerve injury; however, temporary aphonia or disturbance of phonation and laryngeal spasm may also occur (Moore hlm 1087)

2. Which of the following muscle is most important to allow air movement through the larynx?
A. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
B. Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle
C. Thyroarytenoid muscle
D. Cricothyroid muscle
E. Vocalis muscle
Jawaban : B
Alasan : fungsi thyroarytenoid adalah untuk relaksasi vocal ligament (Moore hlm 1094)

3. A 40 y.o. female come to hospital with shooting pain down her left leg and worsen when sitting and coughing. There is numbness in the same area. The physician test her sensation on the lateral thigh region. Which of the following nerve roots is most likely being tested?
A. L1 - L2
B. L2 - L3
C. L4 - L5
D. S1 - S2
E. S3 - S4
Jawaban : B
Alasan : hlm 585-586 Moore (dermatome)

4. A 30 y.o. woman complains unable to walk on her tip-toes. Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged?
A. Sural nerve
B. TIbial nerve
C. Deep fibular nerve
D. Common fibular nerve
E. Superficial fibular nerve
Jawaban : D
Alasan : The loss of dorsiflexion of the ankle cause footdrop, which is exacerbated by unopposed inversion of the foot. The toes do not clear the ground during swing phase of walking (hlm 646 Moore)

5. Which of the following ligaments has prevented abduction of the leg at the knee?
A. Anterior cruciate
B. Posterior cruciate
C. Lateral collateral
D. Medial collateral
Jawaban : C
Alasan : ga tau jawaban pasti, tapi cruciate ligament itu fungsi utamanya mencegah sliding femur dari tibia. Kalo collateral posisinya pas di samping patella, fungsinya menjaga stabilitas saat berdiri, jadi mungkin fungsinya memang mengatur abduksi/adduksi patella. Untuk abduksi (menjauhi sumbu tubuh) yang mungkin itu lateral collateral ligament (Moore hlm 687)

6. A 35 y.o. man complaints of the weakness in the ability to flex the knee. This indicates a problem with which of the following nerves?
A. Tibial nerve
B. Femoral nerve
C. Deep fibular nerve
D. Common fibular nerve
E. Superficial fibular nerve
Jawaban : A
Alasan : popliteus muscle berfungsi untuk fleksi lutut (weakly) dan diinervasi oleh tibial nerve (Moore hlm 649)

7. A young athlete has sustained an injury to his right shoulder. Which of the following structure is most likely to maintain the main stability of this joint?
A. Rotator cuff muscle
B. Celenohumeral ligament
C. Coracohumeral ligament
D. Coracoclavicular ligament
E. Acromioclavicular ligament
Jawaban : D
Alasan : Moore hlm 851-852

8. A tennis athlete has shoulder discomfort and you suspect a rotator cuff tear. Which of the following tendos is most likely damaged?
A. Teres major
B. Teres minor
C. Supraspinatus
D. Infraspinatus
E. Subscapularis
Jawaban : C
Alasan : Recurrent inflammation of the rotator cuff, especially the avascular area of supraspinatus tendon, is a common cause of shoulder pain and results in tears of the musculotendinous rotator cuff (Moore hlm 857)

9. A 27 y.o. man comes to outpatient clinic woth chief complaint fall onto outstretched hand. You suspect fracture of carpal bone. Which of the following bone is most likely fractured?
A. Lunate
B. Pisiform
C. Capitate
D. Scaphoid
E. Triquetrum
Jawaban : D
Alasan : A fall on outstretched hand may result in fracture of the scaphoid, generally across its narrow part (Moore hlm 875)

10. A 20 y.o. student comes to the outpatient clinic with chronic sinusitis. From PE revealed purulent drainage arising from the superior nasal meatus. Which of the following sinuses is likely to be infected?
A. Frontal
B. Maxillary
C. Sphenoidal
D. Ethmoid
Jawaban : D
Alasan : Sinusitis merupakan infeksi pada sinus dan posisi ethmoid sinus adalah di middle dan superior nasal meatus diantara nasal cavity dan orbit (moore hlm 1019)

11. A 30 y.o. boxer received a blow to the right eye. Soon after that he was unable to secrete tears from that eye. What is the most likely location of the injury?
A. Lateral superior orbit
B. Lateral inferior orbit
C. Medial superior orbit
D. Medial inferior orbit
Jawaban : D
Alasan : Because of the thinness of the medial and inferior wall of the orbit, a blow to the eye may fracture the orbital wall whle the margins remain intact (hlm 958 Moore)

12. A 85 y.o. woman comes to family practice because she loose weight about 6 kg for the past 2 months. This condition occurred after she has trouble chewing especially elevate the jaws. Which of the following muscles is a pure muscle that involved in above case?
A. Buccinator muscle
B. Geniohyoid muscle
C. Medial pterygoid muscle
D. Lateral pterygoid muscle
E. Posterior fibers of temporalis muscle
Jawaban : C
Alasan : Acts synergistically with masseter to elevate mandible; contributes to protusion; alternate unilateral activity produces smaller grinding movements (hlm 988 Moore)

13. Fractures of the humerus in different regions may potentially damage different nerves. Which muscle innervations may be compromised by a fracture of the humerus at the surgical neck?
A. Subscpularis
B. Pectoralis major
C. Teres major
D. Deltoid
E. Subclavicularis
Jawaban : D
Alasan : Fracture pada humerus di daerah surgical neck biasanya melukai axillary nerve yang mempersarafi deltoid muscle (Moore hlm 734, 755)

14. A one week baby was brought by his parents to pediatric department with left cleft to the upper lip that extends upward toward the left nostril and left nasal anterior cleft of the primary palate just deep to the cleft lip. Which of the following process is most likely fail that explains the above defect?
A. Mandible process to fuse with the lateral nasal process
B. Mandible process to fuse with the medial nasal process
C. Maxillary process to fuse with the lateral nasal process
D. Lateral and medial nasal process to fuse with each other
E. Maxillary process to fuse with the medial nasal process
Jawaban : E
Alasan : Moore embryology hlm 188

For number 15 and 16 refer to scenario below
A 55 y.o. woman comes to the outpatient clinic with a chief complaint of pain on her both knees since week ago. Pain was felt particularly in the morning. The doctor diagnosis is rheumatoid arthritis, and plans to give Diclofenac sodium 50 mg tablets orally 3 times a day 1 hour after meal for 5 days.

15.Which of the following is the most likely inscription and subscription on the prescription order?
A. Diclofenac Na No. XV
B. Diclofenac Na 50 mg No. XV
C. Diclofenac Na tab No. XV
D. Diclofenac Na 50 mg tab No. XV
E. Diclofenac Na 50 mg Dispense No. XV tab
Jawaban : D
Alasan : Inscription  nama dan jumlah dari isi obat; Subscription  penyusunan bahan obat

16. The doctor also gives Diclofenac sodium emulgel 1% tube I 20gr twice a day.
A. S s.d.d applic
B. S b.d.d applic
C. S t.d.d applic
D. S q.d.d applic
E. S d.i.d applic
Jawaban : B
Alasan : agak ga jelas maksud soalnya, mungkin maksudnya di resep gimana cara make obatnya (Signatura)

For number 17 until 19, choose the appropriate preparation
A. ointment
B. cream
C. pasta
D. lotion
E. Solution

17. Male 25 y.o. has dry skin on leg
Jawaban : D
Alasan : ga tau, tapi biasanya dikasih body lotion bukan sih???:D

18. Male 34 y.o. itching on the fingers near nail, scratching
Jawaban :
Alasan :

19. Baby girl 16 months old brought by her mother with oozing eczema at her buttock
Jawaban :
Alasan :

20. A 16 y.o. man goes to gym to build muscle, forcing himself to do strenuous exercise. There is painful muscle cramp at his upper limbs and back. Blood examination reveals increase in both lactate dehydrogenase and creatin kinase. What is cause of the pain?
A. Depletion of ATP
B. Decrease of blood pH
C. Accumulation of CO2
D. Accumulation of lactate
E. Decrease of blood glucose
Jawaban : D
Alasan : Proses metabolism anaerobic akan menghasilkan laktat dan akan menyebabkan muscle fatigue dan bila berkelanjutan akan menyebabkan pain (Interactive physiology video)

21. during such kind of exercise, energy demand depends heavily on anaerobic glycolysis. Which of the following is the mostly explanation?
A. muscles have no storage of lipid
B. exercised muscles need a lot of O2
D. aerobic glycolysis produces less energy
D. aerobic glycolysis needs longer time to start
E. muscle contraction squeezes blood out of the muscle bed
answer: E
A dan B bener tapi ga nyambung , C. salah karena dengan aerobic glycolisis energy yang diproduksi itu besar, tapi pertanyaan ini menyangkut ketika kita dalam keadaan exercised sehingga keadaaan metabolismnya adalah anaerobic. D. sebenernya tidak ketemu statement bahwa aerobic glikolisis lebih cepat dari anaerobic.. tapi berdasarkan guyton dan analisa, bahwa ketika terjadi kontraksi otot, maka akan terjadi peningkatan tekanan di otot dan inter muscular, akibatnya ada squeezing, lalu ketika adanya exercise, harus ada pembebasan sumber energy yang berasal dari glikogen dimana glikogen dipecah menghasilkan asam piruvat dan asam laktat untuk mengubah ADP jadi ATP (dianggap guyton sebagai proses glikolisis) dalam waktu yang cepat sehingga kontraksi otot dapat dipertahankan meski tidak ada supply O2 dalam membentuk ATP.. jadi dalam exercise, proses yang cepat dalam pembentukan ATP ialah anaerobic.. oleh karena itu, analogi yang mendekati adalah yang E.. Ada yang nemu jawaban pastinya?

22. which of the following is the best explanation of the elevated serum enzyme level?
A. synthesized by exercised muscle cells
B. waste product of muscle cells metabolism
C. leaked out through muscle cell membrane
D. needed to produce energy within muscle cells
E. needed to stimulate glucose uptake by muscle cells
answer: sepertinya C, karena apabila adanya exercise, maka jumlah enzyme ini increase untuk merelease phosphate untuk membentuk ATP, dan apabila jumlahnya meningkat maka akan ada leakage ke kapiler. Ada yang menemukan yang pastinya?

23. exercising muscle actually consist of cyclic attachment and detachment of which of the following structure?
A. globular head region of myosin to F-Actin
B. Globular head region of myosin to G-Actin
C. Helix (tail) region of myosin to F-Actin
D. Helix (tail) region of myosin to G-Actin
E. G-Actin to F-Actin
Answer: B. Guyton Buku Ajar Fisiologi Kedokteran ed 9 hal 96: “pada tiap molekul G-Actin melekat 1 molekul ADP yang diperkirakan berinteraksi dengan jembatan penyeberangan (cross bridge) myosin.

24. Running for long time will decrease ATP level in the muscle. Which is of the following molecule is used as an immediate source of energy?
A. Fatty acid
B. ketone bodies
C. muscle protein
D. Oxygen
E. Creatine phosphate
answer : E. Guyton Buku Ajar Fisiologi Kedokteran ed 9, hal 100.. sumber energy pertama yang digunakan untuk menyusun kembali ATP ialah Creatin phosphate yang membawa ikatan fosfat berenergi tinggi yang serupa dengan ATP. Karena creatine phosphate memiliki energy bebas lebih sedikit dari ATP, maka creatine phosphate segera dipecahkan dan pembebasan energy tersebut menyebabkan terikatnya sebuah ikatan fosfat baru pada ADP untuk membentuk ATP.

For number 25-27, refer to scenario below
Bone mass contains predominantly type I collagen, helix protein which act as a matrix for deposition of calcium.

25. Bone marrow contains type I collagen, helix protein to deposit calcium. Where is the calcium deposited?
A. sulphate
B. oxalate
C. carbonate
D. proteinate
E. phosphate
answer: E. Jancquiera hal 136-137, calcium itu terdeposit membentuk hydroxyapatite Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2

26. Glycine is essential for the formation of protein above because it has the…… needed to be accommodated on the central core of the triple helix.
A. right size
B.right shape
C. strong bone
D. positively charged
E. negatively charged
answer: ?????

27. when is the physical activity best preventing loss of bone mass in osteoporosis?
A. boxing
B. jogging
C. walking
D. swimming
E. weight lifting
answer:E. Frontera essential of physical medicine and rehabilitation 1st ed
hal 649: prevent bone loss= exercise. Bone adapts to physical & mechanical loads placed on it by altering its mass and strength. This occur either by the direct impact of the weight bearing activity or action of muscle attach to the bone
hal 650, rehabilitation; finally therapist can instruct patient about how to exercise to improve strength, flexibility, and balance. All those activity can help prevent falls and weight bearing strengthening exercise may improve bone density

28. damage to peripheral nerve motor neuron in the somatic nerve system produces..
A. high voltage and short duration potentials
B. low voltage and long duration potentials
C. high voltage and long duration potentials
D. low voltage and short duration potentials
E. silent potentials
answer: ??? sory banget, ga ketemu

30. electromyography is a technique to study the electrical activity within muscle. This is accomplished by inserting a needle electrode into muscle. If we record muscles with peripheral neuropathies, which if the following motor unit potentials are most likely to be seen?
A. giant action potentials
B.progressive decline in the amplitude
C. no fasciculation potentials
D.all potentials are of shorter duration
E. reduced number of motor unit action potentials
answer: A. Merrit’s neurology 11th ed, hal 93 fig 19.3
this waveform has a high amplitude of 10 mv, a significantly prolonged duration of 29 milisecond and is highly complex with more than 10 turns.As an individual motor axon dies during denervating injury, the muscle fibers it previously supplied lose all innervations. Surviving nearby axons subsequently branch to supply these muscles, increasing their size and territory resulting in increased MUAP size with higher amplitude, longer duration, and complex morphology.. bandingkan dengan pola MUAP normal pada fig. 15.8

31.which of the following is most likely to the metabolism in white muscle fibers?
A. cross bridge cycling occurs relatively slowly
B. mainly use krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
C. fatigue resistance and high endurance
D. muscles with a high number of myoglobin and mitochondria
E. powerful due to large number of myofillaments and large diameter .
answer: E. Tortora 11th ed. Hal 309. Fast glycolitic fibers: largest in diameter and contain most myofibrils hence they can generate the most powerful contraction, contain large amount of glycogen and generate ATP by glycolisis

32. a period during muscle twitch was a relaxation period. Which of the following is the most important mechanism during this period?
A. sarcomeres shorten as a result of myosin cross bridge cycling
B. tension is reduced, muscle return to original length
C. Calciium is released to cytosol
D.sarcollema and tubules depolarized
answer: B. Tortora hal 309, prosesnya meliputi:
• Calcium is actively transported back into sarcoplasmic reticulum
• Myosin binding site dicovered oleh tropomyosin
• Myosin head detach dari actin
• Tension muscle fiber menurun

33. which of the following mechanism occurs during latent period?
A. calcium actively transported back into terminal cisternae
B. tension is reduced, muscle return to original length
C. calcium is released to cytosol
D. sarcomeres shortened as a result of myosin cross bridge cycling
E. calcium is released into cytosol
answer: C/E. Tortora hal 309, muscle action potential sweep over sarcollema and calcium release dari sarcoplasmic reticulum
34. which of the following mechanism occurs during contraction period?
A. cross bridge begin to cycle but no visible shortening of muscles
B. tension is reduced, muscles return to original size
C.sarcollema and T-tubules depolarized
D. speed depends on weight being lifted and fiber type (?)
E. Calcium actively transported back into terminal cysternae
answer: -
yg terjadi ialah: calcium binds to troponin -> pembukaan myosin binding site -> pembentukan cross bridge-> kontraksi

35. which of the following statement directly trigger the detachment if cross bridge from action?
A. depolarization of T-tubule
B. Hydrolysis of ATP to myosin head
C. calcium ion
D. attachment of ATP to myosin head
E. Depolarization of plasma membrane
Answer: D, tortora hal 300: at the end of power stroke, the cross bridge remains firmly attached to actin until it binds another molecule if ATP. As ATP binds to ATP binding site in the myosin head, myosin head detaches from actin

36. Which of the following is the characteristic of white skeletal muscle?
A.ATP production can be synthesized through krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorilation
B. the muscle cells itself contain numerous mitochondrion and less myosin ATP-ase
C. the muscle cells itself contain numerous of myosin ATP-ase and less myoglobin
D. Fatigue resistant and have high endurance
Answer: C, Tortora hal 312: ciri-cirinya:
• Low myoglobin
• Few blood capillaries
• Few mitochondria
• Contain large amount of glycogen
• Memiliki banyak myofibrils
• Kontraksi yang kuat sehingga membutuhkan banyak ATP, tapi mudah mengalami fatigue

37. which of the following is the most likely term for prolongation of contraction with high frequency?
A. twitch
B.summation
C. treppe
D. Incomplete titanic contraction
E. complete titanic contraction
answer: E. Berdasarkan pengertian dari guyton, bahwa tetanic contraction adalah prolonged summation yang terjadi secara terus menerus, dan apabila dilihat di grafik, tetanik kontraksi ini memiliki celah antar grafik yang teramat sangat kecil yang menandakan waktu terjadi kontraksi sangatlah singkat. Jika dilihat di tortora hal 310, fig.10.15, maka frekuensi yang singkat dalam stimulasi otot mengakibatkan prolonged contraction without relaxation.

38. what is the sac like regions of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that serve as specialized reservoirs of calcium?
A. T-tubule
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. myofibril
D. terminal cisternae
E. triad
answer: B. jelas ya..

39. What is the definition for short, rapid contraction/ relaxation cycles due to high frequency of stimulation?
A. treppe
B. temporal summation
C. incomplete tetanus
D. complete tetanus
E. fatigue
answer: C. tortora hal 310, fig. 10.15, bahwa pada unfused tetanus terdapat fase relaksasi pada otot diantara stimulus sehingga hasilnya berupa sustained tapi wavering contraction..

40. which of the following is correct for the action potential of skeletal muscle?
A. it has prolonged plateau phase
B. it spreads inward to all part of the muscle via T-tubule
C. it is caused by immediate uptake of Calcium into lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. it is longer than the action potential of the cardiac muscle
E. it is not essential for contraction
answer: B, Tortora hal 294: muscle action potential travel along sarcollema and through T-tubules quickly spreading through muscle fibers. This arrangement ensure that an action potentials excites all parts of the muscle fibers at essentially the same instant

41. What is the function of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle ?
a. Sliding on actin to produce shortening
b. Releasing Ca after initiation of contraction
c. Bending to myosin during contraction
d. Acting as relaxing proteinat rest by covering up the sites where myosin binds to actin
e. Generating ATP, which it passes the contractile mechanism
Answer : D
Tropomyosin melilit F-actin helix. Pada resting state, lilitan molekul tropomyosin terletak diatas active site dari actin, sehingga mencegah kontak antara actin dan myosin yang menyebabkan kontraksi tidak terjadi. (Guyton&Hall page 76)

42. The cross-bridges of the sarcomere in skeletal muscle are made up of
a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Troponin
d. Tropomyosin
e. Myelin
Answer : B
Cross bridge skeletal muscle adalah arm dan body dari myosin yang menjulur ke arah actin. The protruding arms and heads of myosin together are called cross-bridges. (Guyton&Hall page 75)

43. Which of the following is correct for the contractile response in skeletal muscle
a. It starts after the action potential is over
b. It doesn’t last as long as the action potential
c. It produces more tension in the isotonically contraction muscle than isometrically
d. It produces more tension in the isometrically contraction muscle than isotonically
e. It can increase the magnitude with repeated stimulation
Answer : E

A 13 years old high school student complained about pain and swelling at her right ankle joint after fell down during sport activity at her school. She was still able to walk but painfully
44. What is the most likely problem occur at her ankle joint
a. Bone injury
b. Muscle injury
c. Ligament Injury
d. Tendon Injury
e. Cartilage injury
Answer : C

45. What is the most common mechanism of this injury
a. Inversion type
b. Eversion type
c. Pronation type
d. Supination tipe
e. Extension type
Answer : A
A sprained ankle is nearly always an inversion injury, involving twisting of the weight-bearing plantarflexed foot. (Moore page 706)

46. Physical examination of the ankle revealed
Look : Localized, swelling at lateral aspect
No deformity, no wound, no ecchymosis
Feel : Tenderness only at lateral aspect, below the lateral malleolus
No bony tenderness at all
Further examination is to perform range of motion examination. Which is the most likely joint to exam
a. Tibiotalar joint
b. Talocalcaneal joint
c. Talonavicular joint
d. Calcaneocuboid joint
e. Tarso metatarsal joint
Answer : B
The lateral ligament is injured because it is much weaker than the medial ligament and is the ligament that resist inversion at the talocrural joint (or talocalcaneal joint) (Moore page 706)

47. Based on these physical findings, what is the most likely classification of this injury
a. Grade 1
b. Grade 2
c. Grade 3
d. Grade 4
e. Grade 5
Answer : A

48. Further test to rule out instability of this condition is to examine which if the following ligament
a. superior talofibular ligament
b. inferior talofibular ligament
c. anterior talofibular ligament
d. posterior talofibular ligament
e. medial talofibular ligament
Answer : C
The anterior talofibular ligament is most vulnerable and most commonly torn during ankle sprains, resulting in instability of the ankle joint. (Moore page 706)

49. Which of the following is the most appropriate radiological examination, at minimum requirement to rule out concomitant fracture of this condition
a. AP projection of the ankle joint
b. Lateral projection of the ankle joint
c. AP and lateral projection of the ankle joint
d. AP, lateral, and mortise projection of the ankle joint
e. AP, lateral, and tangential projection of the
Answer : D
Anteroposterior, lateral, and ‘mortise’ (30 oblique) views of the ankle should be obtained in all but the mildest cases (Apley’s page 734)

50. How long is the most sufficient period of immobilization, as a treatment for this condition
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks
e. 5 weeks
Answer : C
Clinical feature; there is a swelling and marked tenderness. If it’s partial tears then the treatment is immobilization for 2-3 weeks (Apley’s page 737)

51. Which of the following is the most common predisposing factor of this condition
a. Lack of positioning
b. Lack of strengthening
c. Lack of stretching
d. Lack of conditioning
Answer : C

52. A 3-month old girl is taken by her mother for having a red spot since she was 3-days old. Previously, the mother thought it was due to mosquito’s bite. But it slowly enlarges within the last month. Now, the red spot diameter is 0.5 cm, located at the right cheek. What is the possible diagnosis in this patient
a. Birth mark
b. Cavernous hemangioma
c. Capillary hemangioma
d. Port wine stain
e. Nevus flammeus
Answer : C
Hemangioma; the initial sign is hypopigmented blanched macule with or without telangiectasia or an erythematous to ecchymotic patch that is superficial, often with irregular surface and borders. Mostly grow to between 0.5 – 5.0 cm in diameter.
- Cavernous (deep); proliferate in lower dermis and subcutaneous tissue without penetration of the papillary dermis. Present as localized, firm, rubbery, subcutaneous mass that can be slightly raised with a bluish color
- Capillary (telangiectatic); flat or slightly elevated and deep red with an array of superficial dilated capillaries radiating over the surface
Port Wine Stains = Nevus Flammeus; cosmetically disfiguring, congenital capillary and venular malformations that affect up to 0.5 percent of newborns. At birth, lesions are first noted as subtle, light pink patches, commonly appearing on the face. The vessels aren’t proliferate and only grow proportionally with the individual

A 22 year old female came with scald burn due to hot water spill in the whole both arms and part of the chest. The burn wound looked blistered and some of broken blisters showed patchy white and pink and weeping wound base. She felt pain in the wound area. She arrived in the hospital 4 hours after the injury. Her body weight was 50 kg.
53. What is the most likely burn degree in this patient
a. Grade I
b. Grade II A
c. Grade II B
d. Grade III
e. Grade IV
Answer : C
Deep Partial thickness (IIB)
Extend into the reticular layer of the dermis. Blister, wound surface is usually a mottled pink and white color immediately after the injury, because of the varying blood supply to the dermis. (Schwartz page 195)
54. What is the most appropriate burn degree in this patient
a. 18 %
b. 25 %
c. 30 %
d. 45 %
e. 53 %
Answer : B
Each upper extremity = 9% = 18%
Anterior trunk = 18%, hanya chest = 6%
Total 24-25 %

55. What is zone of coagulation in burn wound
a. Area of the worst necrosis
b. Area of local inflammation
c. Area of cellular reaction
d. Area of vasodilatation near static zone
e. Area outside hyperemic zone
Answer : A

56. A 33 year old female had explosion on stove in the kitchen. There was no window. She had burn on face, neck, part of chest. Few hours after injury she had dyspnea. What is the most probable diagnosis
a. Moderate burn
b. Burn and obstructive attack
c. Burn and CO poisoning
d. Burn and foreign body in airway
e. Burn and inhalation injury
Answer : E
Inhalation injury should be suspected in anyone with flame burn, and assumed until proven otherwise. (Schwartz page 202)

57. When the doctor examined him, he was anxious, BP 80/60 mmHg, pulse rate 128 bpm, RR 30/mnt. Which of the following is the most appropriate pathophysiology shock in this patient
a. Increased evaporation
b. Loss off large skin
c. Bleeding from wound
d. Increased capillary permeability
e. Dehydration
Answer : D
Burn shock etiology; hypovolemic or cellular.
Hypovolemic -> multiple mediators causing the microvascular changes via a direct increase in vascular permeability -> disrupsi normal barriers untuk memisahkan intravascular dan interstitial compartments

58. What is inhalation injury
a. Injury of the airway due to trauma
b. Injury due to inhalation of poisonous gas
c. Injury to the lung
d. Burn injury after … the airway
e. Injury to the nasopharynx
Answer : ?

A 3 month old baby girl born with cleft lip and palate. She was born from a term pregnancy and cried immediately after birth
59. When did the disturbance of gestation happen that caused the cleft lip and palate
a. 3rd week of gestation
b. 4th week of gestation
c. 8th week of gestation
d. 9th week of gestation
e. 12th week of gestation
Answer : Cleft lip & palate -> 5-8 minggu (Moore)

60. What is the main problem in this patient
a. Appearance
b. Psychosocial
c. Feeding
d. Speech
e. Choking
Answer : C

61. Her three sisters are normal and both parents as well. What is possible etiology of the congenital anomaly in this patient?
A. genetic
B. malnutrition
C. gen mutation
D. radiation
E. diabetes mellitus
jwb: B
The etiology of cleft lip is regarded as multifactorial. Important potential risk factors include anticonvulsants, parental age, lower socioeconomic class, smoking, alcohol intake, and prenatal nutrition.
Similarly, with cleft lip, there is a plethora of etiologies, including teratogens, alcohol, dietary deficiencies, and maternal epilepsy.
(Schwartz's Surgery 8th Ch.44 Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery, cleft lip & palate)

62. what is the percentage of having another baby with cleft lip and palate in this family?
A. 4%
B. 7%
C. 10%
D. 15%
E. 50%
jwb: A
Concomitantly, parents or siblings with cleft lip and palate predispose future children to an increased risk. In families of a one-cleft parent or sibling, there is a 4% risk of a subsequent child being born with cleft lip/palate.
(Schwartz's Surgery 8th Ch.44 Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery, cleft lip & palate)

63. baby girl 2 m.o lahir dgn cleft lip & palate, lahir cukup bulan dan langsung menangis. Kapan waktu treatment yg tepat?
A. as soon as possible
B. setelah 3 bulan
C. setelah 6 bulan
D. setelah 1 tahun
E. setelah 6 tahun
jwb: B
Surgical closure of a cleft lip is usually performed by 3 mo of age, when the infant has shown satisfactory weight gain and is free of any oral, respiratory, or systemic infection.
(Nelson Pediatrics 17th Ch.291 Cleft Lip and Palate)

For number 64-65
a 6-month-old baby had a bluish lump at her left ear since birth. The last two months, her mother noticed the lump is getting larger slowly.

64. what is the most possible diagnosis in this patient?
A. birth mark
B. cavernous hemangioma
C. capillary hemangioma
D. port wine stain
E. nevus flammeus
jwb:B
Cavernous hemangiomas are deeper, blue masses that if large, may trap platelets and produce disseminated intravascular coagulation or interfere with local organ function.
(Nelson Pediatrics 17th Ch.83 The Newborn Infant)
Hemangiomas are benign vascular neoplasms that arise soon after birth. They initially undergo rapid cellular proliferation and slowly involute through early childhood. Capillary (strawberry) hemangiomas are soft, compressible papular lesions with sharp borders located mostly on the shoulders, face, and scalp. Cavernous hemangiomas are bright red or purple and have a spongy consistency. Histologically, capillary hemangiomas are composed of endothelial cells seen primarily in fetal veins. Cavernous lesions contain large, blood-filled spaces lined by normal-appearing endothelial cells.
The port-wine stain (nevus flammeus) is a flat, dull-red capillary malformation that can be located on the trunk, extremities, and, most commonly, along a trigeminal distribution on the face. Histologically these nevi are composed of ectatic capillaries lined by mature endothelium.
(Schwartz's Surgery 8th Ch.15 Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue, vascular tumors)

65. what is the best therapy for this case?
A. observation until spontaneous regression
B. excision
C. skleroting injection
D. laser
E. corticosteroid
jwb: A
Hemangiomas can enlarge during the first year of life, and more than 90% of them involute over time. Allowing lesions to regress spontaneously usually gives optimal cosmetic results.
(Schwartz's Surgery 8th Ch.15 Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue, vascular tumors)

For 66-67
A 23-year-old female fell off the motorcycle in an accident with her chin hitting the road. There was bleeding from her mouth and she felt pain in her chin. The patient had difficulty in opening her mouth and the doctor noticed deformity at the right chin region.

66. what is the possible diagnosis in this patient?
A. fracture of simphysis of mandible
B. fracture of body of mandible
C. fracture of angle of mandible
D. fracture of ramus of mandible
E. fracture of condylus of mandible
jwb:E
The mandible is the second most commonly injured facial bone and represents 10 to 25% of all facial fractures. The condyle and the angle are the two most frequent regions for mandibular fractures.
(Schwartz's Surgery 8th Ch.44 Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery, mandibular fractures)


67. what is the dominant muscle in above disturb region?
A. m. mentalis
B. m. digastrics
C. m. pterygoid internus
D. m. masseter
E. m. buccinators
jwb:
Muscle Origin Insertion
Mentalis Mandible Skin
Digastrics Anterior belly from inner side of inferior border of mandible; posterior belly from temporal bone Body of hyoid bone via an intermediate tendon
Medial pterygoid Medial surface of lateral portion of pterygoid process of sphenoid bone; maxilla Angle and ramus of mandible
Lateral pterygoid Greater wing and lateral surface of lateral portion of pterygoid process of sphenoid bone Condyle of mandible; temporomandibular joint
Masseter Maxilla and zygomatic arch Angle and ramus of mandible
Buccinators Alveolar process of maxilla and mandible and pterygomandibular raphe Orbicularis oris
(tortora 11th ch.11 the muscular system)

For number 68-69
A baby boy, 2 months old, born with cleft palate. The pregnancy was at term and the baby cried immediately after birth.

68. when is the best timing for surgery in this patient?
A. as soon as possible
B. after one year old
C. after 2 years old
D. after 6 years old
E. after 8 years old
jwb: B

69. doctor found the third and fourth fingers of his left hand are joined. What is the diagnosis for the anomaly of fingers in this patient?
A. syndactili
B. polydactili
c. brachidactily
D. polisindactily
E. brachisyndactili
jwb: A
A different category of limb abnormalities consists of extra fingers or toes (polydactyly). The extra digits frequently lack proper muscle connections. Polydactyly can be inherited as a dominant trait but may also be induced by teratogens. Abnormal fusion is usually restricted to the fingers or toes (syndactyly).
(langman embryology 9th ch.8 skeletal system, clinical correlates)

70. a 26-year-old man had an accident fell off the motorcycle with the jaws hitting the road. There was massive bleeding from his mouth and pain at the chin. There was deformity at the right lower jaw and the right cheek. What is the first emergency treatment in this patient?
A. put on the barton sling
B. immediate tracheoctomy
C. insert tampon to stop bleeding
D. treat hemorrhagic shock immediately
E. immediate surgery for the facial fractures
jwb: B
Tracheostomy is indicated in the management of patients who require prolonged intubation, assisted ventilation, and pulmonary toilet, and in those patients with neurologic deficits that impair protective airway reflexes. Its use in head and neck surgery is often for the temporary management of the airway in the perioperative period. After surgical resection of oral cavity and oropharyngeal cancers, bleeding into the sublingual and submaxillary soft-tissue spaces may result in airway compromise, and elective tracheostomy is indicated to prevent loss of the airway.
(Schwartz's Surgery 8th Ch.17 Disorders of the Head and Neck, tracheostomy)

For number 71-72
A 25-year-old man had an accident fell off the motorcycle with the force hitting the road. Ther was periorbital hematoma in the left eye, deformity at the left cheek, bleeding form the mouth (+). The patient felt numbness at the left cheek & double vision.

71. what is the possible diagnosis in this patient?
A. nasal fracture
B. mandible fracture
C. maxillozygomatic fracture
D. frontalis fracture
E. maxillary sinus fracture
jwb: C
The zygomatic bones (cheek bones, malar bones), forming the prominences of the cheeks, lie on the inferolateral sides of the orbits and rest on the maxillae.
The frontal bone, specifically its squamous (flat) part, forms the skeleton of the forehead, articulating inferiorly with the nasal and zygomatic bones.
The maxillae form the upper jaw; their alveolar processes include the tooth sockets (alveoli) and constitute the supporting bone for the maxillary teeth. The maxillae surround most of the piriform aperture and form the infraorbital margins medially. They have a broad connection with the zygomatic bones laterally and an infraorbital foramen.
The mandible is a U-shaped bone with an alveolar process that supports the mandibular teeth. It consists of a horizontal part, the body, and a vertical part, the ramus.
Le Fort III fracture: horizontal fracture that passes through the superior orbital fissures and the ethmoid and nasal bones and extends laterally through the greater wings of the sphenoid and the frontozygomatic sutures. Concurrent fracturing of the zygomatic arches causes the maxillae and zygomatic bones to separate from the rest of the cranium.
(moore anatomy 5th ch.7 head)

72. what is the possible cause for numbness in this patient?
A. severe soft tissue injury
B. mental nerve injury
C. facial nerve injury
D. infraorbital nerve injury
E. zygomatic nerve injury
jwb: D
mental nerve supplies the skin and mucous membrane of the lower lip from the mental foramen to the midline, including the skin of the chin.
The zygomatic nerve runs to the lateral wall of the orbit, giving rise to two of the three cutaneous branches of CN V2, the zygomaticofacial and zygomaticotemporal nerves.
Infraorbital nerve supplies mucosa of maxillary sinus; premolar, canine, and incisor maxillary teeth; skin and conjunctiva of inferior eyelid; skin of cheek, lateral nose, and anteroinferior nasal septum; skin and oral mucosa of superior lip.
(moore anatomy 5th ch.7 head)
Facial neve traverses the posterior cranial fossa, internal acoustic meatus, facial canal, stylomastoid foramen of the temporal bone, and parotid gland. After traversing the internal acoustic meatus, the nerve proceeds a short distance anteriorly within the temporal bone and then turns abruptly posteriorly to course along the medial wall of the tympanic cavity.
(moore anatomy 5th ch.9 Summary of Cranial Nerves)

73. a 35-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with a two-month history of pain, swelling and purulent discharge to his left lower leg. This occurred one year after sustaining a fracture to that area. Radiological examination reveals sequestrum. Which of the following is the most likely cause of sequestrum appearance in this case?
A. the radiolucent area
B. periosteal reaction
C. the radioopaque area
D. destroyed bone island
E. the surrounding bone segment
jwb: D
The morphologic changes in osteomyelitis depend on the stage (acute, subacute, or chronic) and location of the infection. Once localized in bone, the bacteria proliferate and induce an acute inflammatory reaction and cause cell death. The entrapped bone undergoes necrosis within the first 48 hours, and the bacteria and inflammation spread within the shaft of the bone and may percolate throughout the haversian systems to reach the periosteum. In children, the periosteum is loosely attached to the cortex; therefore sizable subperiosteal abscesses may form, which can trek for long distances along the bone surface. Lifting of the periosteum further impairs the blood supply to the affected region, and both the suppurative and the ischemic injury may cause segmental bone necrosis; the dead piece of bone is known as the sequestrum. Rupture of the periosteum leads to a soft tissue abscess and the eventual formation of a draining sinus. Sometimes the sequestrum crumbles and forms free foreign bodies that pass through the sinus tract.
(robin cotran pathology 7th ch.26 bones, pyogenic osteomyelitis)

74. a 15-year-old male is admitted with a fracture of his left digital femur. An x-ray reveals abnormal bone density and some soft tissue swelling in the area. A biopsy taken during the operation reveals a monotonous population of “small blue cells”. There is no other symptom or clinical signs. Which of the following is TRUE for the above tumor?
A. primary malignant bone tumor with osteolitic nature
B. affected the epiphyses and metaphyses
C. onion’s skin type periosteal reactions
D. pathologic ossification in soft tissue
E. low tendency of metastasis
jwb:

75. a plain x-ray photo of skull shows multiple osteolytic lesions. What is the most possible diagnosis?
A. ewing’s tumor
B. osteosarcoma
C. osteochondroma
D. multiple myeloma
E. ewing’s tumor
jwb: D
Ewing sarcoma is a primary malignant small round cell tumor of bone. It has long posed a difficult diagnostic problem because the tumors resemble those of lymphoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, neuroblastoma, and oat cell carcinoma. Current evidence indicates that Ewing sarcoma tumor cells exhibit a neural phenotype. The expression of the oncogene c- myc and the identification of a specific chromosome translocation in both Ewing sarcoma and similar tumors of soft tissue, called primitive neuroectodermal tumors ( PNET), further support this contention.
Osteosarcoma is defined as a malignant mesenchymal tumor in which the cancerous cells produce bone matrix. It is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone, exclusive of myeloma and lymphoma, and accounts for approximately 20% of primary bone cancers.
Osteochondroma, also known as an exostosis, is a benign cartilage-capped outgrowth that is attached to the underlying skeleton by a bony stalk. It is a relatively common lesion and can be solitary or multiple. Multiple osteochondromas occur in multiple hereditary exostosis, which is an autosomal dominant hereditary disease that is genetically heterogeneous.
(robin cotran pathology 7th ch.26 bones)
Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell neoplasm that is characterized by involvement of the skeleton at multiple sites.
Table, clinical feature: Myeloma; older patients with lytic bone lesions, pathologic fractures, hypercalcemia, renal failure, and primary amyloidosis.
(robin cotran pathology 7th ch.14 disesase of white blood cells, multiple myeloma)

76. a 25-year-old man came to an otolaryngologist, with symptoms of chronic rhinitis and frontal type headache. The physician diagnosed the patient with sinusitis maxillaries and asked x-ray photo to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate x-ray photo?
A. schuller and stenver photos
B. waters and Caldwell photos
C. towne and submento vertex photos
D. esler and rhese photos
E. anteroposterior and lateral skull photos
jwb:

77. which of the following is the most specific radiological sign for above case?
A. thining of the antrum maxillary sinus
B. destruction of maxillary sinus wall
C. opacity of maxillary sinus
D. air fluid level in maxillary sinus
E. periosteal reaction of maxillary sinus wall
jwb:

78. a radiologic appearance of chronic abscess is surrounded by marked sclerosis. What is the most likely term for the abscess?
A. tuberculosis abscess
B. brodie’s abscess
C. granuloma
D. Luetic disease
E. malignant abscess
jwb:

79. what is radiological signs of tuberculosis at extremities bone?
A. periosteal reaction of the bone
B. calcification of the bone
C. abscess formation
D. gouge effect
E. destruction of subcortical bones
jwb:

80. a radiological sign of a patient reveals osteoblastic type metastase in bones. Which of the following is the most possible primary tumor origin?
A. skin carcinoma
B. thyroid carcinoma
C. stomach carcinoma
D. prostate carcinoma
E. wilms’ tumor
jwb:

For number 81 until 83. Refer to scenario below:
A corpse is found without cadaveric rigidity but with cadaveric lividity on the hands and feet. There is also aberration on neck andblood spots on the conjunctiva
81. How much is the body temperature of the corpse?
a. 36.5o C
b. 35 o C
c. 32 o C
d. 28 o C
e. Depending on the surrounding
Answer: A
- Livor mortis (postmortem hypostasis, lividity) is the discoloration of the body after death due to the gravitational settling of blood which is no longer being pumped through the body by the heart. Livor mortis is usually noticeable approximately 1 hour after death and is often apparent earlier, within 20–30 minutes
- Within 1–3 hours following death, the muscles begin to become noticeably increasingly rigid and
the joints immobile (freeze) due to a process known as rigor mortis (postmortem
rigidity, rigor)
Sumber: ebook “Time of Death, Decomposition and Identification - An Atlas”
-dari keterangan diatas dapat disimpulkan bahwa mayat meniggal sekitar 1 jam yang lalu
-dari slide( lecture dr.norman) dikatakan bahwa 6 jam pertama setelah meninggal penurunan suhu tubuh mayat adalah 1’ C tiap jamnya.. karena baru 1 jam jadi 37.5-1= 36.5’C

82. whe is the most likely time of death?
a. Cannot be determined
b. An hour ago
c. 3 hours ago
d. More than 12 hours
e. More than 24 hours
Answer: B
-lihat keterangan soal no 1

83. what is the most color of cadaveric lividity?
a. Brown
b. Purplish
c. Dark red
d. Reddish purple
e. Bright red
Answer: B
- Lividity tends to be violaceous or purple in a light-skinned individual and darker in someone with darker skin. Livor may not be apparent in a darkly pigmented person.
-Certain causes of death, livor mortis may take on a different color.Carbon monoxide poisoning, cyanide poisoning and hypothermia are often associated with livor mortis that appears bright red or pink. Brown lividity has been described in deaths caused by potassium chlorate and in deaths caused by
nitrobenzene poisoning. Sumber: ebook “Time of Death, Decomposition and Identification - An Atlas”

For number 84 until 87 refer to scenario below:
A corpse is found with lividity that is disappeared when pressed and cadaveric rigidity on facial muscle.
84. Which of the following is true for this kind of death?
a. Systemic death
b. Cellular death has occured
c. Death cannot be determined yet
d. Appeared death
e. To be an organ donor is impossible
Answer: A
-systemic death saat dimana jantung telah berhenti,tidak lagi bernafas(tidak ada lagi aliran darah)
-setelah systemic death masih mungkin belum mati celluler. Disaat seperti ini masih memungkinkan untuk donor organ.

85. When is the most likely time of death?
a. ¼ hours
b. ½ - 6 hours
c. > 8 hours
d. > 12 hours
e. Cannot be determined
Answer: B
-The stiffening becomes noticeable in the smaller muscle groups before the larger groups, giving the appearance that rigor mortis proceeds at different rates in the various muscle groups. Stiffness is usually apparent first in the jaw(facial muscle), then the elbows and finally the knees
-Within 1–3 hours following death, the muscles begin to become noticeably increasingly rigid
- satu sampai tiga jam pertama kematian adalah saat-saat awal dimulainya Rigor Mortis dimana prosesnya bertahap dimulai dari otot wajah.

86. A 1 mm maggot was found on corpse. How long did the corpse dead?
a. On the 1st day
b. On the 2nd day
c. On the 3rd day
d. On the 1st week
e. On the 3rd week
Answer: B
-maggot = belatung. Belatung ini terbentuk setelah proses decomposition sempurna. Decomposition mulai tampak jelas setelah 24-36 jam. Kemungkinan waktu yang paling tepat untuk proses pembentukan belatung itu setelah labih dari 3 hari. Jadi jawaban yang paling mendekati adalah 1 minggu setelah kematian.
87.what is the most possible cause of rotting smell?
a. Ammonie and sulphide gases
b. Sulphate gas
c. Sulphide gas
d. Ammoniac gas
e. No rotting smell yet
Answer:

For number 88 until 91. Refer to thescenario below:
In a remote village a corpsewas found without any clothes. The stomach skin and face was dark green.
88. which of the following is the most likely identification method for examination?
a. Odontogram
b. Finger print
c. DNA
d. Nothing/difficult to do
e. Blood
Answer: B
- At room temperature, the right lower abdomen turns green at about 24 hours after death and the entire abdomen is green by 36 hours and Skin begin slips off but the hands and fingers will contain the decedent’s fingerprints.
-Since the fingerprint pattern is actually based in the dermis which remains on the body, the fingers from which the outer layers of the skin are absent can be printed.
-mayat masih cukup baik untuk diidentifikasi dengan menggunakan finger print

89.The visum reveals teeth were intactand there were 24 permanent teeth. Which of the following isteh most appropriate age? (Approximately)
a. 7 year old
b. 8 year old
c. 9 year old
d. 10 year old
e. 11 year old
Answer:
90. The corpse was sent to Hospital by village official then the identification examination is the?
a. Competency and responsibility of doctor/hospital
b. Competency and responsibility of police
c. Competency of police and responsibility of doctor/hospital
d. Competency of doctor/hospital and responsibility of police
e. Competency of doctor/hospital and responsibility of village official
Answer: D
-bisa dipahami sendiri

91. At the crime scene. A red spot was found. From the blood examination revealed negative result for benzidine and teichmann tests and positive result for the presipitine test. Which of the following is the most likely?
a. Animal blood
b. Human blood
c. Animal and human blood
d. Animal body tissue
e. Human body tissue
Answer: B
- Benzidine reactions detect the presence of blood components, notably hemoglobin, within the bone matrix.
- Teichmann test for hemoglobin . Also called the Teichmann crystal, this is a test that is used on dried stains to determine whether or not blood is present. His microcrystalline test remains in use today as a means of identifying whether or not dried stains at a crime scene, on clothing or other fabric, or elsewhere at the site of a forensic investigation contain (human) blood.
-dua test diatas digunakan untuk melihat apakah darah tersebut mengandung darah manusia atau tidak. Karena kedua test diatas menunjukan hasil negative maka bisa dipastikan darah tersebut bukan darah manusia.

92. a parent who lost a child sent passport picture of the child to hospital.Which of the foolowing is the most likely identification method that can be conducted?
a. Facial reconstruction
b. Superimposition via the recent X-ray image of the victim
c. The victim photograph
d. Matching is not possible
e. An older X-ray image should be also used
Answer:A
-Facial reconstruction is a method used in forensic anthropology to aid in the identification of skeletal remains
-dibuat sketsa wajah mayat dengan menggunakan tulang-tulang wajah yang tersisa untuk dicocokan dengan foto asli mayat tersebut ketika masih hidup.

93.a 58 year old woman was admitted to hospital with a two month history of pain, swelling, and purulent discharge to her left lower leg. This occurred one year after sustaining a compuud fracture to that area. Colloning grown from the purulent discharge an blood agar were convex and appeared golden yellow. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Arthritis caused by Neisseria gonnorhoeae
b. Osteomyelitis caused by Haemophilus influenza
c. Wound infection caused by Sporothrix schenckii
d. Arthritis caused by Streptococus pneumonia
e. Osteomyelitis caused by Stapylococcus aureus
Answer: E
-Infection: Osteomyelitis/ostitis
-Most important pathogens:Staphylococcus aureus. Other: Coagulase negative. staphylococci. Streptococcus spp. Enterobacteriaceae Pseudomonas spp. Gram-positive and Gram negative
anaerobes (rare)
-Laboratory diagnosis:Microscopy and culture for bacteria, preferably based on biopsy or surgical material.Swab from fistular duct not useful for diagnosis
- S. aureus:Coagulase-positive; colonies golden yellow. Local purulent infections

For number 94 and 95. Refer to the scenario below:
A 33 yearold woman who is known intravenous drug user. Present with an acutely painful left ankle. On examination she is febrile with a swollen and red ankle. Her white cell count is 19.000/mm3.
94. what is the most likely causative organism?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Candida albicans
d. Pseudomonas aerigenosa
Answer:A
-Infection: Septic arthritis
-Most Importnat Patogen:Staphylococcus aureus. Other:Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pneumonia. Haemophilus influenza. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Enterobacteriaceae . Pseudomonas spp.
-Laboratory diagnosis :Microscopy and culture from synovial fluid with parallel blood culture

95. this patient has an aspiration of synovial fluid from her inflamed joint which shows turbidity,gram positive cocci in a gram stain of the joint fluid,and growth opaque cream colonies on the blood agar culture of the joint fluid.
The systemic infection inthis patient has most likely come from which of the following?
a. An infected needle-sharing contact
b. Contamined drug supply
c. The patient own skin
d. Contamined injecting equipment
Answer:C
-dengan ciri diatas kemungkinan bakterinya adalah Staphylococcus aureus. Dimana bakteri ini meruapakan flora normal dikulit.

96. A 14 year old girl was admitted to the hospital for the treatment of burn wound on her left foot. After four days of admission,pus stared oozing from the wound. Her body temperature was 39’C. A pus sample from the wound showed gram positive cocci arranged in clusters, and the culture showed beta hemolytic colonies on blood agar which were resistant to penicillin. What is the most likely causative organism in this case?
a. Streptococcus mutans
b. Staphylococcus epidermis
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
e. Streptococcus faecalis
Answer: C
- Gram-positive cocci: Staphylococcaceae¬Cluster-forming cocci. Gram-stained S. aureus: This is a facultative anaerobe that is readily cultured on normal nutrient mediums. Hemolytic zones are frequently observed around the colonies.

97.A 70 year old man present to hospital with a fever 40.1’ C and painful cellulitis of the right buttock. The skin appears necrotic, and there are several fluid-filled bulla.Crepitus can be felt,indicating gas in the tissue. A gram stain of the exudates reveals large gram-positive bacilli.
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a. The patient has tetanus
b. His condition has treatable with topical antibiotics
c. The patient has shingles
d. This is a vaccine-preventable disease
e. Surgical debridement and systematic antibiotic are mandatory
Answer: E
-Anaerobic cellulitis. Infection restricted to the fascial spaces that does not affect musculature. Gas formation in tissues causes a cracking, popping sensation under the skin known as crepitus. There is no toxemia.
- The most frequent causative organism in anaerobic cellulitis and gas gangrene (clostridial myonecrosis) is C. perfringens

98. a 58 year old woman was admitted to hospital with a two month history of pain, swelling, and purulent discharge to her left lower leg. This occurred one year after sustaining a compound fracture to that area. Colloning grown from the purulent discharge an blood agar were convex and appeared golden yellow. What is the most possible organism?
a. Neisseria gonnorhoeae
b. Streptococus pneumonia
c. Haemophilus influenza
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Sporothrix schenckii
Answer: D
-lihat keterangan soal nomor 93

99. A 9 year old girl is broufht by her mother because itching on her finger. This itching is worsening at night. Her friend at school also have similar disease. On physical examination reveals small and red vesicle resemble tunnels under the skin between her fingers
Which one of the following is the most likely causative parasite?
a. Trichodectes canis
b. Phthirus pubis
c. Pediculosis humanus
d. Cutaneus larva migrans
e. Sarcoptes scabiei

Answer: E
- Clinical manifestations of Sarcoptes scabiei. An early sign of an initial infestation with Sarcoptes
mites is the primary efflorescence with mite tunnels up to 2–4mm and
sometimes 10mmlong—threadlike, irregularly winding burrows reminiscent
of pencil markings

100. some bacteria produce an internal structure known as endospore. This structureis produced bythe vegetative cells by process called sporogenesis. Which of the following is the most likely produce such structure?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Chlamidya trachomantis
c. Pseudomonas aerugenosa
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Proteus vulgaris
Answer: D
- Bacterial spores (endospores) are purely dormant life forms. Their development from bacterial cells in a “vegetative” state does not involve assimilation of additional external nutrients. They are spherical to oval in shape and are characterized by a thick spore wall and a high level of resistance to chemical and physical noxae. Among human pathogen bacteria, only the genera Clostridium and Bacillus produce spores

Sumber 93-100: e-book “Medical Microbiology (F.H.Kayser et al., Thieme 2005, ISBN 1588902455)”

121. A 25-year-old woman was diagnosed as burn injury 1% grade II at left arm caused by flame. Which is the deepest layer that is affected by the injury?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum basale
E. Stratum papillary
Jawaban : E.
Penjelasan :
1st degree burn  sampai epidermis (+ erythema, pain, peeling)
2nd degree burn :
 Superficial Partial Thickness  sampai upper dermis / papillary layer (+ blister, pain, moist)
 Deep Partial Thickness  sampai lower dermis / reticular layer (+ mottled, less sensation, hypertrophic scar result)
3rd degree burn  sampai subcutaneous tissue, bahkan sampai bone / muscle (+ painless, white/cherry-red/black, dry, leathery, skin graft is needed)

122. A 65-year-old woman complained of insidious onset of low back pain during standing and walking. There is no history of trauma. From physical examination revealed pain at spine process of L-4 vertebrae. X-ray revealed of compression fracture of L-4. Which of this following bone cell activity imbalance in above condition?
A. Osteoblast-osteocyte
B. Osteoblast-osteoclast
C. Osteoblast-osteogenic
D. Osteoclast-osteogenic
E. Osteoclast-osteocyte
Jawaban : B.
Penjelasan :
Compression fracture = fraktur tulang akibat tekanan
Axial compression fracture = fraktur vertebra akibat gaya vertikal berlebih, sehingga ada bagiannya yang keluar secara horizontal, yang seringkali bisa melukai spinal cord
Osteoblast  bone deposition
Osteoclast  bone absorption

123. A 50-year-old man suffered from erythroderma came to the Emergency Room with chill as prominent complaint. Which of the following disturbance can cause his complaint?
A. Bacterial protection
B. Mechanical barrier
C. Chemical barrier
D. Thermo-regulator
E. Evaporation
Jawaban : D.
Penjelasan :
Salah satu fungsi kulit adalah sebagai thermo-regulator.
Pada erythroderma terjadi erithema secara universal di seluruh tubuh, yang artinya terjadi vasodilasi pembuluh darah pada kulit secara luas. Hal ini menyebabkan aliran darah ke kulit meningkat, sehingga kehilangan panas juga akan meningkat. Hasilnya adalah pasien merasa dingin dan menggigil.

For number 124 until 126, refer to scenario below :
A 60-year-old man came to your clinic with chief complaint swelling and ulceration accompanied with difficulty in opening his left eyelid of the last 6 months. He noticed hyperpigmentation skin lesion on the outer aspect of the eyelid. The skin lesion was sometimes itching and easily glued. He works as a farmer in the mountainous and works from 7am to noon daily for more than 20 years without any sunlight protection. Microscopic finding revealed that the tumor cells were growth hyperplastic in solid arrangement, tumor cells were oval to spindle which have the appearance of forming island.
124. Which layer of skin is damaged because of sunlight from case above?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum spinosum
E. Stratum basale
Jawaban : E.
Penjelasan :
Sunburn  1st degree burn  epidermis
Radiasi sinar UV matahari memiliki efek terhadap melanosit yang terdapat pada stratum basale.

125. Which layer of the skin is damaged from case above?
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Subcutis
D. Subcutaneous fat
E. Muscle
Jawaban : B.
Penjelasan :
Excoration  kelainan kulit akibat kehilangan jaringan sampai ke papillary layer.
Apabila kerusakan belum sampai papillary layer ( epidermis), disebut erosion.
Apabila kerusakan melebihi papillary layer ( dermis), disebut ulceration.

126. Which layer is damaged that causing difficulties in opening the eye?
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Subcutis
D. Subcutaneous fat
E. Muscle
Jawaban : E.
Penjelasan :
Otot merupakan organ yang mampu berkontraksi / berelaksasi untuk melakukan suatu pergerakan / aksi.

For number 127 and 128, refer to scenario below :
A 25-year-old man comes to your clinic with chief complaint of reddish plaques pruritus on his entire body and chillness. This comlaint has already happened for the last month that was started on his knees, elbows, and buttocks. The lesion has large scaling that exfoliated profusely. Microscopic finding from skin biopsy was containing marked epithelial hyperplasia, hyperkeratotic, parakeratotic and spongiosis.
127. Which layer of the skin damaged for large scales from above case?
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Subcutis
D. Subcutaneous fat
E. Fascia
Jawaban : A.
Penjelasan :
Parakeratosis & spongiosis merupakan ciri khas dari psoriasis.
Psoriasis adalah hiperproliferasi dari keratosit (yang terdapat pada epidermis).

128. Which part of the nerve stimulated cause pruritus in the case above?
A. Meissner
B. Pater Pacini
C. Free nerve endig
D. Krause
E. Rufini
Jawaban : C.
Penjelasan :
Itch merupakan sensasi gatal yang disebabkan oleh rangsangan free nerve ending oleh zat kimia / stimulus permukaan kulit secara lembut, dihantarkan oleh C fiber pada spinothalamic tract.

129. A 17-year-old girl comes to dermatologist with chief complaint of red pimples on both cheeks for the last two years. She rarely wears cosmetics. On physical examination, comedo, papules, and pustules are found mostly on forehead, cheeks, and jaws area. What type of gland is causing above symptoms on the face?
A. Apocrine
B. Holocrine
C. Eccrine
D. Sitocrine
E. Paracrine
Jawaban : B.
Penjelasan :
Acne = peradangan pilosebaceous unit
Sebaceous (oil) gland  holocrine  jenis sekresi glandular dengan cara akumulasi secretory product pada cytosol, kemudian terjadi disintegrasi seluruh bagian sel.

130. A 7-year-old girl brought to dermatologist with chief complaints of small vesicles and itchy on her back. What type of gland is causing above symptoms on this patient?
A. Paracrine
B. Holocrine
C. Eccrine
D. Sitocrine
E. Endocrine
Jawaban : C.
Penjelasan :
Miliaria = retensi keringat akibat oklusi sweat gland
Sudoriferous (sweat) gland  eccrine/merocrine  jenis sekresi glandular dengan cara exocytosis melalui vesikel-vesikel berisi secretory product.

131. A 35-year-old man had discrete, coin-shaped, erythematous patches from 20-40 mm wide, in which papules and papulovesicles and exudation occurred. The lesions were itchy and appeared on his legs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Circumsribed neurodermatitis
B. Nummular dermatitis
C. Seborrhoic dermatitis
D. Chronic lichen simplex
E. Erythroderma
Jawaban : B.
Penjelasan :
B  dermatitis berbentuk nummular (coin-shaped), biasanya menghasilkan eksudat (=exudative neurodermatitis)
A = D  dermatitis berbentuk lichen (papul kecil, padat, berdekatan) akibat garukan yang berulang-ulang pada kulit
C  dermatitis kronis, dengan sisik kering / berminyak, terutama pada scalp ditandai dengan ketombe
E  erithema abnormal secara universal

132. A 32-year-old man is diagnosed of having erythroderma. The doctor gives him intravenous glucose 5%, 20 glt/mnt and topical vaseline ointment for the skin. Which of the following is the most likely reason of giving intravenous glucose 5%?
A. Patient couldn’t drink or eat
B. For antibiotics preparations
C. To overcome the excessive water loss
D. Standard procedure
E. For calorie requirement
Jawaban : C. / E. (?)
Penjelasan :
(IV glucose untuk asupan kalori/energi.. tapi di kasus ini kayanya ditekenin untuk treatment eritroderma nyaprevent water loss… tapi gatau…)

For number 133 and 134, refer to scenario below :
A 35-year-old man complained of thick scaling at his elbow and knee area accompanied by mild itching and reddish.
133. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this particular condition?
A. Psoriasis
B. Erythroderma
C. Sunburn
D. Lichen planus
Jawaban : A.
Penjelasan :
Psoriasis adalah kelainan kulit akibat hiperproliferasi keratosit pada epidermis, dengan ciri lesi erythrosquamous (kemerahan & pengelupasan sisik).

134. Which of the following test is appropriate to diagnose this disease?
A. Auspitz test
B. Prick test
C. Skin test
D. KOH test
E. Woods Lamp test
Jawaban : A.
Penjelasan :
Auspitz’s sign  gambaran titik perdarahan halus bila sisik diangkat dari plak psoriasis, disebabkan oleh penipisan epiddermis di atas dermal-papilae.

135. A 30-year-old woman came to the doctor with complaint many dandruffs since last 2 months. She only complained about mild itching. The doctor found scales in te border of her scalp. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A. Seborrheic dermatitis
B. Pityriasis versicolor
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Pityriasis rubra
E. Parapsoriasis
Jawaban : A.
Penjelasan :
Seborrheic dermatitis  dermatitis kronis, dengan sisik kering / berminyak, terutama pada scalp ditandai dengan ketombe & rasa gatal.

136. A 60-year-old man came to the doctor with chief complaint his finger nails at both hands became yellowish and pitted since 3 months ago. He also complained about pain and swelling at his finger joints. He did not have history of trauma or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following disease is the most likely caused pitting nail in this patient?
A. Mycosis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Vascular disease
D. Allergic
E. Psoriasis
Jawaban : E.
Penjelasan :
Psoriasis memiliki manifestasi klinis pada kuku berupa :
-nail pitting (cekungan kecil pada kuku akibat keratinisasi yang abnormal)
-oil spot (macula kekuningan di bawah nail plate)
-onychodystrophy (bentuk kuku yang abnormal)
-onycholysis (terlepasnya kuku dari matrixnya)
-anonychia (kuku tidak tumbuh)

137. A 25-year-old woman had small clear and superficial vesicles on her back. The lesions were asymmetric and appeared after she had bedridden due to fever. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Miliaria rubra
B. Miliaria pustulosa
C. Miliaria crystalline
D. Occlusion miliaria
E. Milia
Jawaban : C.
Penjelasan :
Miliaria crystalline  bentuk : vesikel superfisial yang kecil, akibat bedrest yang lama
Miliaria rubra  bentuk : papulovesikel kemerahan yang gatal, pada daerah lipatan tubuh
Miliaria pustulosa  bentuk : pustule, diawali oleh bentuk dermatitis lainnya
Miliaria profunda  bentuk ; papule putih tanpa gatal, letaknya di lapisan kulit yang dalam

For number 138 until 140, refer to scenario below :
A 60-year-old man came to the hospital with breathing difficulty and poor condition. He said his weight loss about 10 kg in the last 3 months. Cough without sputum occurred last month. Physical examination was found normal vital sign, anemic conjunctivae, lung auscultation, : ronchi (+) in the left chest. In the left extremity, the doctor found 3 black nodules, 2x3x1 cm in diameter, painless, well-border, left inguinal lymph node just palpable.
138. Which of the following is the most possible diagnosis for this patient?
A. Keratoacanthoma
B. Melanoma maligna
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Epidermoid carcinoma
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
Jawaban : B.
Penjelasan :
Melanoma maligna adalah tumor ganas dari melanosit.
Manifestasi klinis : variasi warna pada lesi & peningkatan diameter, kedalaman, ketidak-simetrisan dari lesi, bisa juga disertai perdarahan / gatal / ulkus.

139. In this patient, black nodules occurred due to which of the following?
A. Hemorrhagic crust
B. Increase of melanocyte
C. Inflammation
D. Necrotic tissue
E. Disturbance of lymph system
Jawaban : B.
Penjelasan :
Melanocyte adalah sel khusus pada epidermis dan folikel rabut yang memberikan pigmen gelap / hitam (melanin) pada kulit dan rambut.

140. Considered of enlargement of inguinal lymph node, which of the following process is the most likely to occur in this patient?
A. Metastasis
B. Secondary infection
C. Inflammation of lymph node
D. Lymph system disturbance
E. Defense mechanism of the body
Jawaban : A.
Penjelasan :
Melanoma bisa bersifat invasif.
Staging I & II  localized cutaneous disease
Staging III  apabila telah bermetastasis ke regional lymph node
Staging IV  apabila telah bermetastasis ke viscera, skeleton, CNS

For questions 141 – 142 :
A 56-year-old man complained about a mole in his nose that bleeds easily. He said that the lesion occurred about 10 years ago, was like a dark mole, and became larger and now it is as big as a bean. Three years ago, the lesion started to itch and darken, and now it bleeds so easily that even a touch by a finger can cause it to bleed. The doctor found hyperpigmented lesion with ulcer, ill-bordered, 2 x 2 cm in diameter. Hemorrhagic crust covers a part of the ulcer.

141. Which of the following is the most possible diagnosis ?
A. keratoacanthoma
B. melanoma maligna
C. epidermoid carcinoma
D. basal cell carcinoma
E. squamous cell carcinoma
Jawab : D
Pembahasan :
Keratoacanthoma ditandai secara klinis dengan adanya nodule berwarna kulit (flesh-colored), berbentuk seperti kubah, dan memiliki keratin plug di tengah-tengah, sehingga bentuknya seperti kawah.
Pada melanoma maligna, secara klinis, dalam satu lesi terdapat variasi dalam pigmentasi (ada hitam, coklat, biru, abu-abu); kadang ditemukan pula zona hipopigmentasi (kadang putih atau berwarna kulit). Terkadang ada rasa gatal. Batas lesi biasanya jelas, dan terkadang “notched” (membentuk suatu depresi).
Basal cell carcinoma ditandai secara klinis dengan adanya papule berwarna keperakan (pearly papule) yang mengandung pembuluh darah subepidermal yang terdilatasi dan terlihat jelas (telengiectasis). Lesinya bisa mengalami ulserasi. Selain itu, jika merupakan varian superficial basal cell carcinoma, lesinya merupakan plaque erythema atau terpigmentasi, yang jika diobservasi, pada tepinya terlihat pearly papule. Lesi BCC tumbuh secara lambat.
Squamous cell carcinoma ditandai secara klinis dengan adanya lesi berbentuk plaque yang berwarna merah, berbatas jelas, dan bersisik (scaling) pada tahap in situ. Pada tahap lanjut, lesinya berbentuk nodular, menunjukkan hyperkeratosis, dan memiliki ulserasi. Jika terjadi pada membran mukosa, ada leukoplakia.
Sumber : Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, edisi 7, hal.1234, 1239, 1241-1244
Jadi, pada kasus di atas, kemungkinan besar jawabannya adalah (D) basal cell carcinoma, karena lesinya mudah berdarah. Kemungkinan besar ini adalah karena telangiectasis yang terbentuk.
142. Which of these is the most likely to have a correlation with the above disease ?
A. chronic trauma
B. chronic infection
C. chronic sun exposure
D. cryosurgery
E. topical cytostastic preparation
Jawab: C
Pembahasan:
Faktor risiko untuk basal cell carcinoma :
- Paparan terhadap sinar matahari secara kronis
- Orang yang pigmentasinya rendah (berkulit terang)
- Orang yang mengalami immunosuppresion
- Orang yang memiliki defek herediter pada mekanisme DNA repair-nya
Note :
pada squamous cell carcinoma, faktor risiko :
- Paparan terhadap matahari secara kronis
- Paparan terhadap karsinogen industri (tar, minyak)
- Ulkus kronik
- Osteomyelitis kronik
- Bekas luka bakar
- Paparan terhadap radiasi ionisasi (ionizing radiation)
- Pernah mengkonsumsi arsenik
- Pada rongga mulut : tobacco dan betel nut
- Orang dengan immunosuppresion (pada chemotherapy atau transplantasi organ)
- Orang dengan defek herediter pada DNA repair
Sumber : Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, edisi 7, hal. 1241-1244

143. Which of the following treatment is the first choice in this patient ?
A. surgery
B. radiotherapy
C. cauterization
D. cryosurgery
E. topical cytostatic preparation
Jawab : A
Pembahasan :
Beberapa pilihan terapi untuk basal cell carcinoma :
1. Surgery
Ada dua metode, yakni Mochs Micrographic Surgery dan Standard Excision.
Pada teknik Mochs Micrographic Surgery, dilakukan eksisi sedikit demi sedikit; setiap selesai eksisi, jaringan dilihat melalui mikroskop apakah ada sel tumor atau tidak. Eksisi dilakukan terus hingga jaringan menunjukkan negatif untuk sel tumor. Indikasinya : lokasi tumor pada tempat yang risiko tinggi (misal: mask area dari wajah, kulit kepala, anatomic fusion plane, daerah periorbital), tumor > 2 cm, secara histologis tergolong agresif, tumor berulang, tumor yang sudah dieksisi tapi tidak komplit, lokasi di kulit yang sebelumnya pernah diradiasi, pasien yang mengalami immunosuppression, batas klinis tak jelas, situasi membutuhkan preservasi jaringan untuk fungsi dan/atau kosmetik)
Dengan teknik Standard Excision, dilakukan eksisi pada tumor secara umum.
2. Electrodessication and Currettage (ED & C)
Prinsip : menggunakan arus listrik untuk memotong/menghancurkan jaringan dan mengkauterisasi pembuluh darah.
Indikasi : tumor primer dengan batas jelas, lokasi di tempat yang jarang terjadi rekurensi, sub tipe BCC superficial atau sub-nodular, diameter < 1 cm pada wajah dan < 2 cm pada ekstremitas atau trunk, memiliki kontraindikasi terhadap prosedur eksisi, tidak bisa melakukan follow-up teratur.
3. Cryosurgery
Prinsip : menggunakan cryogen (freon, oksigen, NO, atau nitrogen cair) untuk menghancurkan jaringan melalui perusakan langsung terhadap sel, menginduksi stasis pada pembuluh darah, dan menginisiasi respon inflamasi lokal.
Kontraindikasi : memerlukan diagnosis histopatologi, kanker kulit non-melanoma yang berulang, lokasi lesi pada tempat yang berisiko terjadi scarring dengan retraksi.
4. Photodynamic therapy
Prinsip : generasi reactive oxygen species (ROS) dengan mengeksitasi photosensitizer menggunakan cahaya dan oksigen, sehingga ROS bisa memberi efek cytotoxic secara langsung maupun tak langsung pada sel target.
5. Radiation therapy
Keuntungan : bisa rawat jalan, tidak sakit, atraumatik, jaringan sehat bisa terproteksi, memiliki kontraindikasi terhadap operasi.
Kerugian : tidak bisa dilakukan verifikasi histopatologis, perawatan lama, secara kosmetik bisa memburuk, ada kecenderungan tumor berulang secara agresif dan ekstensif.
6. Topical treatment
Ada 2, menggunakan imiquimod atau 5-fluorouracil (FU).
Imiquimod diindikasikan untuk kutil anogenital eksternal, superficial BCC < 2 cm pada trunk, ekstremitas, leher; dan actinic keratosis. Kerugiannya : terjadi iritasi berupa erythema dan erosi terutama dengan penggunaan harian. Komplikasi : irritant contact dermatitis, ulserasi, treatment tidak komplit.
5-FU diindikasikan untuk actinic keratosis, superficial BCC, dan BCC pada umumnya. Efek samping ada yang sistemik (misal : mual, anorexia, stomatitis, diare, myelosuppression, alopecia, toksis terhadap jantung dan saraf), lokal (iritasi lokal, erythema, nyeri, bengkak, pruritus, dyspigmentasi, allergic contact dermatitis, photosensitivity), dan efek samping yg tidak biasa, seperti onycholysis, onychodystrophy, dan telangiectasis.
Sumber : Case Review DMS angkatan 2006 hal. 149 – 151
Jadi, pada kasus di atas, karena tumornya 2 x 2 cm dan terletak di wajah, sebaiknya tidak dilakukan ED & C maupun cryosurgery. Radiotherapy dan topical treatment sebaiknya tidak dilakukan karena kemungkinan tumor berulang cukup tinggi. Maka, terapi terpilihnya adalah surgery (kemungkinan terutama yg metode Mochs Micrographic Surgery).

For number 144 – 145, refer to the scenario below :
A 20-year-old female medical student came to dermatologist because she had reddish lesion on both of her elbows. She said that the lesion appeared about 2 months ago, after she played tennis. Physical examination found that they are covered by thick scaling with erythematous macules on the base. The doctor found the same lesions on both of her knees.

144. Which of the following procedure will help to make the diagnosis ?
A. KOH examination
B. Nikolsky’s sign
C. Tzank smear
D. Gram stain
E. Biopsy
Jawab : E
Pembahasan :
Diagnosisnya Psoriasis.
Untuk mendiagnosis psoriasis, biasanya dilakukan secara klinis, yakni ada tanda-tanda :
- Lesi klasik psoriasis adalah plaque berwarna kemerahan, berbatas jelas, dengan permukaan sisik keperakan.
- Auspitz sign positif (ketika sisik diambil, ada bleeding point/titik-titik perdarahan karena pengambilan sisik telah mengakibatkan trauma pada kapiler di bawahnya).
- Lesi psoriasis biasanya bersifat simetris dan banyak terjadi di bagian ekstensor (siku, lutut).
Jika secara klinis tidak jelas, maka bisa dilakukan biopsi. Dari hasil biopsi, akan ditemukan :
- Pada tahap awal : edema dan infiltrasi round cell pada bagian upper dermis, terutama pada dermal papilla. Bagian epidermisnya menjadi spongiotic, menunjukkan adanya focal loss pada stratum granulosum. Vena pada upper dermis mengalami dilatasi, dan dikelilingi infiltrate mononuclear.
- Pada tahap lanjut :
o Untuk chronic (plaque-type) psoriasis, terlihat peningkatan massa epidermis 3-5 kali lipat, tidak adanya stratum granulosum di atas dermal papilla, tebalnya granulosum di daerah rete ridge. Di lapisan basal, ada banyak mitotic figure. Pada dermis, papilla terlihat tipis, panjang, dan prominent. Kapilernya terdilatasi dan tortuous. Ada infiltrasi sel inflamasi (makrofag, limfosit, neutrofil, mast cell). Ada juga PMN terutama di atas dermal papilla.
o Untuk eruptive (guttate) psoriasis, hyperplasia epidermis lebih tidak prominent. Ada area spongiosis di atas dermal papilla. Ada discharge serum dari ujung papilla menuju ke epidermis, dimana neutrofil akan berakumulasi. Sel-sel ini akan berkumpul di area sub-corneum, membentuk subcorneal pustule. Kadang ada eritrosit yang ikut ekstravasasi.
Opsi A-D tidak dilakukan untuk psoriasis.
Sumber : Fitzpatrick edisi …, hal. 176; edisi …, hal. 415-417

145. Thick scaling with erythematous macules. Which of the following medication is the first choice for topical treatment in this patient ?
A. topical antihistamine
B. cytostatic agent
C. topical steroid
D. moisturizer
E. keratolytic
Jawab : C
Pembahasan :
Topical glucocorticoids biasanya merupakan terapi first-line pada psoriasis bentuk ringan atau sedang dan pada psoriasis yang terjadi pada flexure dan genitalia.
Sumber : Fitzpatrick edisi … hal. 185

146. A 50-year-old man complains resistant dandruff for the last 2 years. His wife has passed away. Itching in scalp with thick dandruff, thick scales, greasy, red macules with well border. KOH exam shows hyphae (-). What is the pathogenesis ?
A. hyperkeratosis
B. orthokeratosis
C. hypertrophy of epidermis
D. hyperplasia of keratinocyte
E. hypertrophy of basal layer
Jawab : C
Pembahasan :
Diagnosisnya adalah psoriasis pada scalp (kulit kepala). Maka patofisiologinya adalah hyperplasia dari keratinosit. Patient’s symptoms : chillness, redness over most of the body, thick scales on the elbow and knee.

147. Which of the following complication must we consider in this patient ?
A. electrolyte imbalance
B. renal failure
C. circulation disorder
D. hematopoietic disorder
E. bleeding disorder
Jawab : A/B
Pembahasan :
Diagnosis pada pria ini adalah exfoliative dermatitis, kemungkinan karena psoriasis.
Pada exfoliative dermatitis, terjadi pengelupasan secara besar-besaran dari sisik yang terbentuk. Hal ini menyebabkan penurunan fungsi kulit sebagai barrier tubuh, salah satunya berakibat pada peningkatan penguapan air. Penguapan air yang meningkat bisa menyebabkan ketidakseimbangan elektrolit dan renal insufficiency.
Sumber : Fitzpatrick edisi … hal. 439-440.

148. Site of predilection :
A. sun-exposed site
B. traumatic sites
C. flexor sites
D. extensor sites
E. neck
Jawab : C/D
Pembahasan :
Bingung! Flexor site = cubital fossa dan popliteal fossa atau siku dan lutut ?
Yang jelas, ED karena psoriasis terjadinya sering di siku dan lutut.

149. A 17-year-old came with chief complain of red pimples on both cheeks for 2 years. She rarely wears cosmetics. Physical findings : comedo, papules, and pustules on cheeks, forehead, and jaws. What is the diagnosis ?
Diagnosis : acne vulgaris 

For question 150 – 151 :
A 19-year-old is hospitalized with a fever, headache, and neck stiffness. According to his mother, 3 days ago he had pimples on his nose, was given a cream by his friend, after which his nose became reddish and swollen. Physical examination reveals decreased alertness, BP 120/90, HR 100 bpm, RR 24/min, temperature 40.3°C, swelling, reddish, pustules, and neck stiffness.

150. Which one is the most likely first choice of antibiotics ?
A. broad spectrum
B. bacteriostatic
C. bactericidal
D. antibiotic which goes through blood-brain barrier
E. antibiotic with resistance test
Jawab : A
Pembahasan :
Untuk mengobati acne, diberikan broad-spectrum antibiotic, misalnya tetracycline.
Sumber : Fitzpatrick edisi …, hal. 680.

151. Without antibiotics, what is the most likely prognosis ?
A. very good
B. good
C. bad
D. worse
E. unexpectable
Jawab : D
Pembahasan :
Pada kasus di atas, acne-nya sudah termasuk pustular; sehingga lesinya merupakan lesi inflammatory. Karena itu, diperlukan antibiotik untuk mengontrol lesi.

152. A woman is brought by her husband because of paralysis of her right arm. She has had this complain since a month ago. She said that her husband was initially worried she had stroke, but her extensive neurological work-up results were entirely within normal limit. The onset of paralysis was sudden after she punished her 15-year-old daughter who had been involved in drugs. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
A. panic disorder
B. mood disorder
C. anxiety disorder
D. somatization disorder
E. conversion disorder
Jawab : D
Pembahasan :
Panic disorder merujuk pada suatu serangan kecemasan (anxiety) yang bentungnya akut dan intens, bersamaan dengan adanya perasaan sesuatu yang jelek akan terjadi (sense of impending doom).
Mood disorder adalah suatu kelompok kelainan dimana mood patologis dan gangguan yang dialami mendominasi gambaran klinis (e.g. major depression, bipolar disorder.. review NBSS  )
Anxiety disorder  g ada. Disorder dari anxiety itu = panic disorder…
Somatization disorder adalah konversi dari faktor psikis menjadi gejala fisik dan biasanya bereaksi dengan manifestasi somatic daripada psikis.
Conversion disorder adalah sama dengan somatization disorder, namun gejalanya berjangka pendek.


153. A 35-year-old female came to the obstetrics ward. This woman is known to like doctor-shopping. She complained of back pain, dyspareunia, excessive menstruation, constipation, and chest pain. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
A. Pain disorder
B. Malingering disorder
C. Hysterical personality disorder
D. Somatization disorder
E. Conversion disorder
Jawab : A
Pembahasan :
Pain disorder biasanya ditandai secara klinis sbb : pasien memiliki riwayat medis dan operatif yang panjang, dan riwayat medisnya tidak terdiri atas gejala yg konsisten, misalnya memiliki sakit punggung bawah, nyeri kepala, nyeri wajah, nyeri pelvis, dan nyeri lainnya.
Malingering dibedakan dari pain disorder dengan kelainan yang dipura-purakan. (Pada pain disorder, pasien benar-benar yakin bahwa dia menderita nyeri)
Major depressive disorder memiliki gejala berupa perubahan nafsu makan dan berat badan, perubahan siklus tidur, penurunan energy, perasaan bersalah, kesulitan dalam berpikir dan membuat pilihan, serta memiliki pikiran untuk mengakhiri hidup selama paling tidak 2 minggu.

154. A 40-year-old female believes she has breast cancer. Mammogram and biopsy is negative.
A. somatization disorder
B. conversion disorder
C. hypochondriasis
D. malingering disorder
E. pain disorder

155. A 50-year-old man who has poorly-controlled diabetes is referred to you due to non-compliance to medication. You learn that he cannot fell asleep at night and has no energy during the day. His appetite is good and he does not enjoy activities as he once did overall, he feels depressed. Additionally, he has been experiencing chronic pain in his feet, which is not relieved by analgesics.
A. alprazolam
B. citalopram
C. amitriptyline
D. bupropion
E. trazodone

For questions 156 – 157 :
A 66-year-old man came to the ENT clinic, complaining about hoarseness and slight dyspnea for 6 months. Physical examination showed tumor in his vocal cord with impaired mobility. A 4-cm nodule is found on the neck, at mid-jugular region. No node enlargement in other parts of the body.

156. What TNM classification ?
A. T is
B. T 1
C. T 2
D. T 3
E. T 4

157. The location level of the node enlargement in the above case (the mid-jugular region) :
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V

158. A 40-year-old male came to ENT clinic with a mass in the lower part of his neck that moved upward on swallowing. He had no pain nor tenderness in that area, no fever, no bruit. The mass is about 4 cm in diameter, firm, and hard, located a little bit to the left. There is hoarseness recurrently.
Which of the following is the possible diagnosis ?
A. Lymph node enlargement
B. Thymus persistence
C. Abscess of the lower neck
D. Tuberculosis of the upper mediastinum
E. Thyroid mass
Jawab : A
Pembahasan :
Bukan thyroid mass karena tidak ada fever dan bruit.
Bukan abscess karena tidak ada tenderness, massanya firm dan hard.
Bukan thymus karena tidak congenital.


For number 159 until 161, refer to the scenario below :
A 60-year-old man visited the ENT clinic with difficulty of swallowing because he feels a mass in his throat. The doctor in clinic says that he is suspected to have nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

159. Which neck node enlargement below shows the possibility of that carcinoma ?
A. anterior compartment
B. jugulodigastric
C. mid jugular
D. posterior triangle
E. low jugular
Jawab :
Pembahasan :

160. Which of the following is the most likely therapy to the patients ?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Operating
C. Cryosurgery
D. Radiation
E. Photodynamic therapy
Jawab : D
Pembahasan :
Radiotherapy is the standard modality of treatment, yieliding about a 50%-70% 3-year survival rate.
Sumber : Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, edisi 7, hal. 785
161.C.Tumor infiltration to th middle ear
Pembahasan: serous otitis media merupakan salah satu complikasi yang sering terjadi ialah pada nasopharingeal tumor. Selain itu jga sering terjadi diplopia karena gangguan CN VI.

162.A.Mixed tumor
Pembahasan: Parotif duct tumor umumnya mix tumor yakni derived dari mixture of ductal dan sel-sel myoepitel.

163.-
Pembahasan:
-Coldwell (anteroposterior): sinus frontal dan ethmoid anterior
-Schuller : proyeksi lateral kepala
-Water: proyeksi radiograpic kepala anterior.

164.C.Le-fort II fracture
Pembahasan: Le-fort fracture = pyramidal fracture (dari posterolateral part maksilari sinus > superomedially melalui infraorbital foramin,lacrimal dan ethmoid to bridge of nose > central part of face including hard palate dan alveolar process.

165.C.ESR 60/90
Pembahasan: terjadi peningkatan ESR pada kasus TB tulang dimana ESR normal =0-20mm/hour.

166.E.Anemia
Pembahasan: pada keadaan exfoliative dermatitis ialah eosinophilia, high level Ig A, Hypoalbuminemia, negative nitrogen balance dan anemia.

167.E.The most sensitive tumor marker to detect and monitor the course of colorectal carcinoma.
Pembahasan: CEA memiliki tingkat sensitivitas 60-90% pada colorectal carcinoma, 50-80@ pada pankreas tumor, dan 25-50 % pada digastric dan breast carcinoma

168.E.Serum Uric Acid
Pembahasan: Diagnosis kasus ialah Gout dimana tejadi peningkatan uric acid pada darah.

169.B.Aspiration of the joint fluid for culture and sensitivity.

170.B.Give an antibiotik and analgesic then refer to dentist.

171.E.Angina van ludwig

172.A.Proper method of tooth bruishing

173.A.Rheumatoid artritis
Pembahasan:
Morfologi RA=
1.Infiltrasi synovial stroma by dense perivascular inflamatory cells
2.Increase vascularitas owing to vasodilatasi dan angigenesis
3.Increase fibrin > rice bodies
4.Accumulasi neutrofil in synovial fluid
5.Osteoclast activity in underlying bone
6.Pannus formation

174.B.Osteosarcoma
Pembahasan: Cukup jelas di robbin bab tulang

175.A.Crystal
Pembahasan: diagnosis Gout dimana terjad acumulasi cristal uric acid.

176.D.Soft tissue sweeling

177.C.Glioblastoma multiforme
Pembahasan: pada glioblastoma multiforme morfoliginya sama dengan anaplasia astrocytoma + necrosism vascular,dan endothelial cell proliferation.

178.A.Non- ossifying fibromal

179..C.Compound nevus
Pembahasan:
Melanocyt nevus : differensiasi melanocyt yang sel-sel yang highly dendritis yang terinterspersi di basal keratinovyt to round cell aggregate di dermoepidermal juncion,terdiri dari beberapa jenis>
a.Junctional nevy: early developmenatal stage
b.Compound nevy: di bawah underlying dermis
c.Intradermas nevus : epidermal nest may be lost

180.A/B
Pembahasan: diagnosis tumor adiposa tissue (lipoma dan liposarcoma)
-Lipoma: terdapat mature adipocyte, well encapsulated, intramuscular, dan pooly circumscribed
-liposarcoma : well differentiated,myoid,round cell,pleomorphic variant,cell lipocyte, lipoblast,mimic fat cells and contain rounnd cell cytoplasmic vacuola
Tapi lebih berat ke A karena terdapat lypocyte (adiposcyte yang mature ) (osteocyte=mature osteoblast)