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FBS 8
1. Which of the following organisms have a cellulose cell wall?
A. Animal
B. Bacteria
C. Human
D. Plant
E. Protozoa
2. Which of the following have both sexual and asexual reproduction ?
A. Animal
B. Bacteria
C. Virus
D. Fungi
E. Plant
3. Which organelle found in prokaryotic cell?
A. Lysosome
B. Membrane enclosed nucleus
C. Nucleus
D. Mitocondria
E. Ribosome
5. Which of the following agent lacks nucleic acid?
A. Bacteria
B. Prions
C. Protozoa
D. Viroids
E. Viruses
6. Transmission of visceral larva Magras?
A. Bite
B. Eggs
C. Filaform penetrate skin
D. Filaform larva
E. Futile egg
7.which one of the following that have no cell wall
a.bacillus
b.chlamidia
c.clostridium
d.mycoplasma
e.rickettsia
8. Which of the following agent simultaneously contains RNA &DNA?
A. Bacteria
B. Plasmid
C. Prion
D. Viroid
E. Virus
9. Treponema pallidum cannot be visualized by light microscope because
A. Cannot be stained by ordinary stain
B. It is transparent
C. Diameter less than 0.2 micrometer
10. Chloramphenicol acts on bacteria
11. Cell envelope contains of what?
12. Which one lack of cell wall and cannot synthesize precursor of peptidoglycans?
A. Bacillus
B. L-Form
C. Chlamydia
D. Mycoplasma
E. Spirochettes
14. Some organisms are capable of growing at temperature above 100 C. This organisms are
referred as
A. Chemolitotrophs
B. Mesophilic
C. Thermophilic
16. 1000 of staphylococcus aureus cell are exposed to a disinfectant. After 10 min, 90% of the
cell are killed. How many areus still viable after 20 min?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
E. 500
17. Which of the process on bacteria is reversed?
A. Bactericides
B. Bacteristatic
C. Disinfectant
D. Dry-heating for 15 minutes
E. Heating at 160-170ᴼC for 1 hour
18. What is the appropriate temperature for pathogenic bacteria to grow in lab?
A. 10-19˚C
B. 20-29˚C
C. 30-37˚C
D. 38-50˚C
E. 50-59˚C
19. The process by which microorganisms form ATP during fermentation of glucose is
characterized by:
A. The coupling of ATP production with transfer of electron
B. Anaerobic respiration
C. Denitrification
D. Substrate phosphorylation
E. Reduction of oxygen
21. Synthesis of below cell component determined entirely b enzyme specificity
A. DNA
B. Nucleic acid
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Protein
E. RNA
22.The form genetic in which donor DNA is introduced to a recipient by bacteria virus is
called:
A. Horizontal Transfer
B. Conjugation
C. Transduction
D. Translection
E. Transformation
23. The form of genetic exchange in bacteria that is susceptible to activity of deoxyribonuclease
is…
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Transfection
D. Transduction
E. All of the above
24. Stain of sputum show acid fast bacteria. What is the way of its infection ?
A. Breathing aerosol containing bacteria
B. Holding contaminated things
C. Ingestion
D. Sexual transmission
E. Holding potring soil
25. Which of the following genital flora microorganism is present in a significant decrease
number in bacterial vaginosis?
A. Candida albicans
B. Corynebacteria species
C. Lactobacillus species
D. Prevotella species
E. Staphylococcus epidermis
26. It is not a normal flora,but pathogenic
A. E.coli
B. M.tuberculosis
C. Neisseria
D. Staphylococcus
E. Streptococcus
27. Antimicrobial therapy can decrease amount of susceptible bowel flora and allow proliferation
of relatively resistant colonic bacteria. Which one from below can proliferate and produce
toxin that will cause diarrhea?
A. Bacteroides fragile
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Enterococcus sp
D. Pseudomonas aurugina
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
28. Which of the following groups of antimicrobial agents act on microorganism by
inhibiting protein synthesis ?
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Penicillin
D. Glycopeptide
E. Polymyxins
29. When selecting an initial antimicrobial therapy for an infection,these following factors are
generally considered
A. Patient age,site of infection,culture/susceptibility test result,immunocompromised of the
patient
B. Patient age,culture/susceptibility test result,immunocompromised of the patient,present of
appliances such as urinary catheter
C. Patient age,site of infection,immunocompromised of the patient,present of appliances such
As urinary catheter
D. Site of infection,culture/susceptibility test result,immunocompromised of the patient,
present of appliances such as urinary catheter
E. Patient age,site of infection,culture/susceptibility test result,present of appliances such as
Urinary catheter
30. A food commonly associated with Bacillus cereus food poisoning
A. Fried rice
B. Baked potato
C. Hot freshly steamed rice
D. Green beans
E. Honey
31.Which test can distinguish streptococcus and staphylococcus?
A. KIA
B. Optochin
C. Catalase
D. TSIA
32. Blood specimen from a patient with diarrhea is cultured in non-lactose Gram negative
bacillus. What is the etiologic agent of the diarrhea?
A. Enterobacter sp.
B. Klebsiella pneumonia
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. E. coli
E. Salmonella thypi
33. 35 Years old woman having urinary tract infection with burning sensation with urination
along with frequent urine smell like ammonia
A. E. agerogene
B. Citrobacteria frendii
C. Semlia marses
D. E. coli
34. hilang….sorry!!=(
37. A diarrhea usually has onset within 24hours after eating shellfish. Stool cultures typically
yields a pathogenic Gram negative bacillus. The organism concern in this setting is…
A. Enterohemmorhagic E.coli
B. Enterotoxigenic E.coli
C. Vibrio cholera
D. Shigella dysenteriae
E. Vibrio para
39. Streptococcus pneumonia can be distinguished from Streptococcus viridans by:
A. Catalase Test
B. Coagulase Test
C. Citrate Test
D. DNAse Test
E. Optochin
41. Which one of the following is cause of thypus?
A. Coxiella burnetti
B. Rickettsia prowazeckii
C. Rickettsia ricketsii
D. Rickettsia akari
E. Rickettsia conori
42. Transmission of Chlamydia pneumonia is by this route
A. Air borne
B. Water borne
C. Skin contact
D. Sexually contact
E. Food borne
43. Which of the following is the characteristic of virus?
A. Can grow saprophytic
B. Can grow in artificial media
C. Can be seen with light microscope
D. Can be mutated
E. Multiplication is the same as bacteria
44. When infecting cell virus often develop morphologic changes referred as cytopathic effect.
Virus induced cytopathic on cells change could lead to?
A. Cell death
B. Cell proliferation
C. Giant cell formation
D. Antibody against virus production
E. No changes at all
45. ….The most likely 1st step of successful viral infection inro cell ?
A.
B.
C.
D. Interacting with more than one receptor on surface of cell
47. The most appropriate speciment to find Rota virus is
A. Stool
B. Blood
C. CSF
D. Urine
E. Conjunctival swab
49. Which of the following viruses, possess a RNA genome that is infectious when
purified ?
A. Influenza virus
B. Measles virus
C. Papilloma virus
D. Polio virus
E. Rato virus
50. What is interferon’s principal mode of action as an important part of the host defense against
viral infection?
A. It coats viral particles and block their attachment to cells.
B. It induces synthesis of one or more component of protein that inhibit translation or transcription.
C. It is present in the serum of healthy individual, providing as viral surveillance role.
D. It protects the virus infected cel that produced it from cell death.
51. A 9 year old girl was admitted to hospital with chief complaint fever and persist cough. He
was diagnosed to have pneumonia. What virus that cause the disease?
A. Adenovirus
B. Coxsackie virus
C. Respiratory syncitial virus
D. Rhinovirus
E. Rotanirus
52. Enterovirus are characterized by:
A. Latency in sensory ganglion and reactivation primarily in immunocompromised
patients
B. The entry of cells followed by binding to CAM receptor
C. Transmission primarily by fecal oral route
D. The presence of RNA polymerase enzyme
E. Undergoing antigenic shift and drift
53. hilang…sorry!!=(
56. Which of the following tumor caused by a virus of the than Epstein Barr virus?
A. AIDS related CNS non Hodgkin’s disease
B. Burkitt’s lymphoma
C. Hodgkin’s disease
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Post transplant lymphoma
58. Viral neutralizing antibody was directed against…
60. What adenovirus protein services as primary for initiation of viral DNA synthesis?
A. Cysteine Proteinase
B. Fiber
C. Hexon
D. Penton
E. Terminal Protein
62. Mosquitoes in the life cycle of plasmodium vivax is the host where…
A. Sexual phase of parasite occur.
B. Adult parasite exist.
C. Parasite cannot develop into maturity.
D. Asexual phase if parasite occur.
E. Sexual and asexual phase of parasite occur.
63. Which is the way of entry to the host by Oxyuris (Enterobius) vermicularis?
A. Inhalation
B. Skin penetration
C. Insect bite
D. Sexual intercourse
E. Transplacental
65. What are the characteristics of Toxoplasma gondii?
66.ada pasien wanita/anak perempuan datang dengan keluhan abdominal pain, vommiting,
Lalu dikeluarkan cacing 10cm, transmisinya adalah
a.eating uncooked pork
b.external autoinfeksi
c.ingest infective egg
d.melalui kulit/mucus membrane
e.ingest larvae stage
69.life cycle intestinal nematode yang membuat kokin-cina diare
a.ingesting adult stage
b.rhabditiform larvae
70. What is the infective stage of Necator Americanus?
A. Filariasis
B. Rhabditiform larvae
C. Fertile egg
D. Infertile egg
E. Embryonated egg
73. Which worm cause hypochromic microcytic anemia?
A. Hookworm
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Trichuris trichuira
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
E. Enterobius vermicularis
74.pengambilan makanan wuchereia brancofti melalui
a.absorbsi
b.langsung
c.sucking
79.masa prepaten pada fibrosis
80. Correct for biological vector of parasite that cause rural bancroftian
A. Filariasis
B. Simuluris
C. Aedes
D. Culex
81.which of the following stement is correct for tropozoit stage payogenic amoeba
a.always in the infective stage
b.resistance to invironmental change
c.this stage change the cyst sgate in seccum
d.this stage is ready to invade and destroy the host tissue and organ
e.continou to multiply inside lumen of jejenum
82.taxoplasmic most commonly transmitted by
a.inhale
b.ingestion
c.aa active
83.in the life cycle of intestinal protozoa exytation in the lower ileum under the influence of many conditon, which of the following is most likely correct
a.parasit population
b.enzyme activity in the parasite
c.chane of osmotic preasure
d.enzme of inner wall of the host
e.food suply
84. In the exoerythrocytic cycle, which of the following can be found?
A. Schizont
B. Sporogomy
C. Merozoites
D. Gametocysts
E. Macrocyte
85. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for plasmodium malariae?
A. Infected RBC seem enlarged
B. Infected RBC may contain shuffeer dot
C. Ring forms and gametocytes are found in peripheral blood smear
D. Only attack matured erythrocytes
87. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for diagnosis of taxoplasmosis?
A. Finding oocyst stage from body fluid or tissue
B. Finding oocyst stage from human feces
C. Finding trophozoite stage from cat feces
D. Serologic test for detection of specific antibodies
E. Finding oocyst stage from peripheral blood
89.what is the correct organism related o organism that infected this woman….
a.transmitted from person
b.vaginal is the only site of infection
c.grow at max ph 3,8-4,4
d.reproductive by longitudinal binnary fraction
e.
90. Which of the following stages is CORRECT for transmission of the woman’s disease?
A. Cyst
B. Oocyst
C. Tachyzoite
D. Sporozoite
E. Trophozoite
91.tipe transmisi pada anopheles à brugia timori
a.propagatif
b.cyclo defelopmental
c.defelopmental
d.herediter
e.cycloo propagatif
92. Mosquito in the life cycle of Filaria sp?
A. Mechanical vector
B. Definitive host
C. Intermediate host
D. R host
E. Paratenic host
93. Which of the following is the etiology of facultative myasis?
94. What is the mite that cause acne vulgaris?
96. Which of the following fungus is commonly used as control
97. Which of the following insecticide has an organic phosphor?
A. Baygon
B. Dieldrin
C. Taksaphen
D. Temephos
E. Tanit
99. There are many symptoms in intoxication with insecticides of phosphor organic, which is
the following is correct?
A. Depression
B. Toxic conil convulsion
C. Insomnia
D. Hyperhydrosis
E. Blurred view
100. The most characteristic of Abate is
B. Toxic to human
C. Use as repellent
D. Pouring in water
E. White crystal shape
101. Which of the following is zoonotic disease caused by endoparasite?
A. Amoebosis
B. Giardiasis
C. Scictosomosis
102. Which of the following intestinal Nematodes give the etiology of Helminths zoonosis?
A. Angyostrongylas cantonensis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Spirometra mansonoides
D. Dirofilaria immitis
103. 12 years old boy feel tingling and itching after 30 min swimming in the lake. Next day, he
had small papules or blisters in his legs. He was diagnosed dermatitis. What is the infective
stage?
104. Which of these is the correct for the infective stage of Diphyllobothrium mansomoides?
A. Eggs
B. Coracidium
C. Plerocercoid
D. Cysticercoid
E. Procercoid
105. Why injection by beefworm is less dangerous rather than porkworm infection? (roughly)
108. Which of the following reagents can be used to diagnose Ascariasis by floatation method?
A. 96% NaCl
B. 0.1% NaOH
C. 33% NaCl
D. 0.96% NaCl
E. 10% NaOH
110. Laboratory technique by microscopic examination for blood nematode with qualitative
method
A. Stool method
B. Cellotape method
C. Kato katz method
D. Thick blood smear with Giemsa stain
E. Thin blood smear
111. Motility of Trichinella spiralis can be examined using what method?
option no 112-116
a.ascaris lumbricoides
b.tricuris trichuria
c.necator americanus
d.strongyloides storcnralis
e.trichinela spinalis
114.larva stage menembus ke alveolus tertelan kembali ke esofagus lalu kembali ke usus halus
115.yang female menyerang intestinal vili
116.larva rapidly grow in long axis muscle
114. The larvae stage breaks out of capillary into the alveoli and pass down th
esophagus to the intestine.
117.the life cycle of this parasite consist of two stage cyst and tropozoit, and also the also the tropozoit exhibit “fallen leaf” motility.the most likely identification of this organism is?
a.entamoeba histolitica
b.balntidium coli
c.trichomonas vaginalis
d.dientamoeba fragilis
117. Description:
Sexual reproduction is in intestine
The infective stage: cysts
The microorganism above is:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Nemator americanus
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. Strong…
118. Have more than 1 nuclei/chromosome
A. Fungi
B. Virus
C. Bacteria
D. Aerob bacteria
E. Protozoa
120. Which of the following periodicity is CORRECT?
A. Nocturnal Periodicity
B. Diurnal Subperiodicity
C. Diurnal Periodicity & Diurnal Subperiodicity
D. Nocturnal Periodicity & Nocturnal Subperiodicity
E. Diurnal Periodicity & Nocturnal Subperiodicity
Rickettsia sp is transmitted by aerosol?
A. Coxiella burnetii
B. Rickettsia prowazeckii
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Rickettsia akari
E. Rickettsia conori
170.food associated with b,cereus
Ans. Fried rice
Differentate staphylococcus and streptococcus
Ans.catalase
soal mde fbs 8
Jumat, 06 Juni 2008
Diposting oleh superstar2007 di 00.08
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