FBS IV
1. Which of the following statement is correct for transition mutation?
A. Occur when purine is substituted for pyrimidine or vise versa
B. Result from the insertion of one or two bases analogs into DNA chain
C. Deletion frequency in the presence of base analogs such as two amino acids
D. Result from the substitution of one purine for another or one pyrimidine for one another
E. Always miscence mutation
2. Which of the following is CORRECT about telomerase?
A. It adds up to the 5’ end of DNA strand
B. It recognizes the G-C rich of DNA strand
C. It is a transcriptase
D. It use RNA as a template
3. Discontinuous nature of DNA synthesis..
4. Which one is CORRECT about discontinuous nature of DNA synthesis?
A. Require DNA polymerase 3 dissociate from template when it reach single stranded region
B. Necessary only because synthesis is bidirectional from initiation point
C. Leads to formation
D. Synthesis occurs on second strand of DNA only after synthesis of first is complete
6. What is the process that uses both DNA strands as a template concurrently?
A.Translation
B. Excision repair
C. Mismatch repair
D. DNA repair
E. Replication
8. Recognition of ribosome by the eukaryotic mRNA to synthesize protein involves
A. Polymerase A at the mRNA
B. DNA Polymerase as a replication enzyme
C. The 3’ end of RNA
D. ‘Cap’ of the mRNA
E. eIF 2
9. Which of the following is correct about
a. double strands
b. covalent link between RNA and DNA
c. hybrid of RNA and DNA
d. arise from sugar phosphate backbone of parental DNA chain
e. removed by nuclease
11. Which of the following is correct about turnover of cellular RNA?
A. Rate of repair is more than degrade
12. Correct statement about termination of eukaryotic transcription
A. Random process
B. Require rho-factor
C. Doesn’t require rho-factor
D. Efficient if more A-T segment
E. Require ATP-ase
13. What is the CORRECT statement about sigma factor in prokaryote transcription?
A. It is a core enzyme
B. It binds with rifampicin
C. It’s inhibited by alfa-amanition
D. It’s needed for transcription to occur
E. It recognizes promoter region
14. Eukaryotic transcription
15. Which of the following is the factor required only for accurate initiation of transcription in prokaryotes
A. α
B. β
C. Transcription factor IId
D. Sigma
17. A comparison of prokaryote and eukaryote RNA reveals which one of the following?
C. Both prokaryote and eukaryote account 70% of the mRNA
21. In the termination of translation of mRNA into amino acid sequence of polypeptide in prokaryote, the stop codon is recognized by which of the following?
A. Specific uncharged tRNA
B. Specific aminoacyl-tRNA
C. Specific rRNA
D. Specific ribosomal unit
E. Specific protein
22. Formation of peptide bonds by ribosomal mRNA complex continue until
A. ribosome reaches T end of mRNA
B. tRNA with anticodon for UAA, UAG, UGA interact with amino side of ribosome
C. formylmethionic-transfer interact with amino side on ribosome
D. ribosome dissociate to large and small subunit
E. stop codon of mRNA is reached
23. What is the substance that blocks the peptidyl transferase in translation process?
C. Streptomycin
25. Which component of eukaryotic ribosome has no smaller or equal sized in prokaryotic ribosome
A. 40s
B. 28s rRNA
C. 60s ribosomal unit
D. 18s rRNA
E, 58s rRNA
26. Which of these protein enzyme in prokaryotes is used in the elongation in protein synthesis?
A. EFT
B. RFT
C. tRNA1 met
D. tRNA synthase
28. Termination of protein synthesis
A. Stop codon at P site
B. Nonribosomal protein factor bind to ribosome
C. Coincide degrade iron
E. Require energy
29. Which of the following statement is CORRECT during the elongation site of eukaryotic protein synthesis?
A. A new peptide bond is synthesized by peptidyltransferase site of the P site ribosomal subunit in a site requiring reaction
B. The incoming aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the P site
C. The peptide, still bounds to a tRNA molecule is translocate to a different site on the ribosome
D. Streptomycin can cause premature release of the incomplete peptide
E. Peptide bond formation occurs by the attack of the carboxyl group of the incoming aminoacyl-tRNA on the amino group of the growing peptide chain
30. Which of the following is required during eukaryotic protein synthesis?
A. DNA
B. lysosome
C. UTP
D. 20 different amino acid in amino-acyl tRNA
E. F met tRNA
32. Which of the following phases best describe an operon?
A. An unregulated gene system
B. A coordinately gene system
C. A gene that produces a monocistronic messenger RNA
D. The region of DNA to which a repressor bind causing inhibitor of initiation of transcription
E. A constitutively expressed gene system
33. Which of these statements describe enhancer?
36. What is the function of nucleosome?
37. Fungsi H1?
39. Eukaryotic chromosome are linear and contain specialized bond, telomere. Which of the following true for T-loop structure of telomere?
A. T-loop form lacriat structure
B. T-loop binds to specific protein SSB
C. T-loop is called D-loop
D. T-loop contain non coding region
E. T-loop same size as D-loop
40. Which of the following amino acid is abundant in histone protein?
A. Arginine and Asparagine
B. Leucine and Isoleucine
C. Aspartate and Glutamate
D. Arginine and Lysine
E. Histidine and Glutamine
42. A DNA strand of sequence 3’ GTCAAGGAT’ 5’ would be transcribed to form which of the follow?
A. 3’ GTCAAGGAT 5’
B. 5’ GUCAAGGAU 5’
C. 5’ CAGUUCCGA 3’
D. 3’ AUCGAAUAU 5’
E. 5’ CAGTTCCTA 3’
44. What is the phase which has maximum activity of telomerase?
A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. M phase
D. G2 phase
45. Put the right order concerning the tRNA maturation
1. Precursor tRNA
2. CCA addition
3. Splicing
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,2
C. 2,3,1
D. 2,1,3
E. 3,2,1
47. Which of the following process occur after eukaryotic mRNA bound to the ribosome?
A. Transport the mRNA to cytosol
B. Capping
C. Amino-acyl tRNA bind to mRNA molecule
D. Splicing
E. Polyadenylation
49. Which of the following about mutation in thalassemia?
A. Deletion in β-globin gene
B. Mutation in β-galactosidase gene
C. Mutation in insulin receptor gene
D. Mutation in glucose transporter gene
E. None of all above
50. Which of the sequences listed below best described the order in which the following enzymes participate in the replication of DNA bacteria?
1. DNA polymerase I (pol 1)
2. 5’-exonuclease
3. DNA polymerase II (pol 3)
4. DNA ligase
5. RNA polymerase (primase)
A. 5,3,1,2,4
B. 3,2,1,5,4
C. 5,3,4,2,1
D. 5,3,2,1,4
E. 3,2,5,1,4
53 Which of these molecules in DNA replication?
D. SSB protein
E. polyadenyl
54. Where is the genetic hereditary located?
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. DNA
51. Transition of GATTC..
a. GGTTC
60. In human meiosis, testis will produce...?
62. The certain region of chromosome that consists of very large, simple short random repeated DNA sequence transcribe in what region?
A. Telomere
B. Metacentric
C. Submetacentric
D. Acrocentric
E. Satellite
66. What is the cause of polyploidy?
A. Immature of separation during meiosis (non-disjunction)
B. The chromosome is 69
C. Cell containing multiple of diploid cell
76. Fertilization is a process of fusion of sperm and ovum. What occurs during capacitation?
A. Release of secretine enzyme
B. Removal of glycoprotein layer
C. Capacitation
D. Removal of acrosome enzyme
84. During gastrulation, the primitive streak is formed. Which part it is formed?
A. On the surface of epiblast
B. On the inner surface of epiblast
C. Between epiblast and hypoblast
D. On the hypoblast
E. Below the hypoblast
90. A patient have heart defect. What is the origin of heart?
E. Sinous venous which form bulbus cordis
93. CNS is the center for processing info in our body. Which of the following of the above system is formed by neural crest?
A. Forebrain
B. Midbrain
C. Mindbrain
D. Spinal nerve
E. Spinal cord
A. Ectoderm
B. Lateral Mesoderm
C. Intermediate Mesoderm
D. Splanchnic Mesoderm
E. Endoderm
96. Spermatogenesis occur at this organ
97. Gases exchange in body occur in this region
98. The process of information occur in this organ
99. The organ that produce oocyte
A. Head ectoderm
B. Otocyte
C. Ectoderm
D. Endoderm
E. Neural Endoderm
100. This organ is for smelling
102. This organ will develop retina
104. Which of the statements is TRUE about dizygotic twins?
A. Both have similar sex
B. Both zygote have one chorion for both
C. The individual members have resemblance
D. Two oocytes fuse with two sperm
E. The two share placenta for both
105. Which of the statemens is TRUE about monozygotic twins?
A. Both have similar sex
B. Both zygote have one chorion for both
C. The individual members have resemblance
D. Two oocytes fuse with two sperm
E. The two share placenta for both
106. Siamese twins are connected to each other by a special connection of the body which is
A. Skin
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Pulmonary
E. Stomach
108. A newborn baby congenital cataract. His mother suffers by German measles during pregnant. When mother infected caused by this problem?
A. 1-5 week
B. 6-10 week
C. 11-15 week
D. 16-20 week
E. 20-25 week
a. thalamus
b. hipothalamus
c. cerebellum
d. cerebral hemisphere
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